Subfertility MCQs

Explanation: Assessing statements about Intrauterine Insemination (IUI):

• a) Fresh seminal fluid is effective as processed (False): IUI requires processed ('washed') sperm. Semen contains prostaglandins, white blood cells, and bacteria that can cause uterine cramping, pain, and infection if instilled directly into the uterus. Sperm washing concentrates motile sperm and removes these unwanted components.
• b) Done after 12 hrs of induction (with HCG) (False): Ovulation typically occurs about 36-40 hours after an hCG trigger injection. IUI is usually timed to coincide with expected ovulation, commonly performed once around 36 hours post-hCG, or sometimes twice (e.g., at 24 and 40 hours). Performing it only 12 hours after hCG would be too early.
• c) Indicated in oligozoospermia (True): IUI is indicated for couples with unexplained infertility, mild endometriosis, or mild male factor infertility (e.g., mild oligospermia, asthenozoospermia, or teratozoospermia, provided there are sufficient motile sperm after washing). Severe male factor usually requires IVF/ICSI.
• d) Intercourse is contraindicated for the rest of the cycle (False): There is no contraindication to intercourse after IUI. Some clinicians may even encourage it around the time of IUI to potentially increase chances, although evidence for benefit is limited.
• e) Done in midcycle (True): IUI must be timed to coincide with ovulation, which occurs mid-cycle (around day 14 of a 28-day cycle, but timed precisely using monitoring like ultrasound and/or LH surge detection/hCG trigger).

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Discusses indications for IUI (Section 1.12) and recommends against it in mild male factor but offers it for unexplained/mild endometriosis (practice varies). Specifies need for sperm washing.
• Human Fertilisation & Embryology Authority (HFEA) Website: IUI Information (Link)

Explanation: This 34-year-old woman has secondary amenorrhoea and persistently high FSH levels (>40 IU/L on two occasions), confirming a diagnosis of Premature Ovarian Insufficiency (POI) - also known as hypergonadotropic hypogonadism or premature ovarian failure. This means her ovaries have stopped functioning adequately before the age of 40. Other potential causes of infertility (thyroid, prolactin, uterine, male factor) have been excluded.

• a) Clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and intrauterine insemination (Incorrect): Clomiphene works by stimulating the release of FSH/LH. In POI, FSH is already very high, and the ovaries are unable to respond to it. Clomiphene is ineffective.
• b) FSH and LH to induce ovulation and invitro fertilization (Incorrect): Injectable gonadotrophins (FSH/LH) are also ineffective because the fundamental problem is the ovaries' inability to respond, not a lack of stimulation.
• c) Intra uterine insemination of surrogate woman with husband’s sperms (Incorrect): Surrogacy involves another woman carrying the pregnancy. This would only be relevant if the patient could produce eggs but couldn't carry a pregnancy (e.g., absent uterus), which isn't the case here. Also, IUI wouldn't be used with a surrogate in this way; IVF would be needed.
• d) Donor oocyte and invitro fertilization (Correct): Since the patient's own ovaries are not producing viable eggs, the only way for her to achieve pregnancy using her own uterus is through IVF using eggs donated by another woman. These donor eggs are fertilised with her husband's sperm, and the resulting embryo(s) are transferred to her uterus.
• e) GnRH to induce ovulation and invitro fertilization (Incorrect): GnRH (or GnRH agonists/antagonists) are used in standard IVF cycles to control the natural cycle, but they do not stimulate follicle growth in women with POI. Pulsatile GnRH is used for hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Discusses management of WHO Group III anovulation (hypergonadotropic), implying oocyte donation is the option (Section 1.3).
• ESHRE Guideline: Management of women with premature ovarian insufficiency (2016) - States oocyte donation is currently the only proven option to achieve pregnancy.

Explanation: This patient presents with features consistent with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) according to the Rotterdam criteria (two out of three needed: oligomenorrhoea indicating oligo/anovulation, clinical signs of hyperandrogenism - acne, and polycystic morphology on ultrasound). Her BMI is normal (24 kg/m²). She desires fertility.

• a) Intrauterine insemination with prepared sperms. (Incorrect): IUI may be considered later, often in conjunction with ovulation induction, especially if there's mild male factor or unexplained infertility, but it's not the first step for anovulation due to PCOS.
• b) Laparoscopic ovarian drilling. (Incorrect): Ovarian drilling is a second-line treatment for ovulation induction in women with PCOS who are resistant to clomiphene citrate, or potentially as a first-line surgical option in specific circumstances (e.g., if laparoscopy is needed for another reason).
• c) Ovarian induction with clomiphene citrate. (Correct): According to NICE CG156 and international guidelines, clomiphene citrate is the recommended first-line pharmacological treatment to induce ovulation in women with PCOS-related anovulatory infertility. Letrozole is often considered an alternative first-line agent with potentially higher live birth rates and lower multiple pregnancy rates. However, clomiphene remains a standard first-line option listed here.
• d) Oral metformin (Incorrect): Metformin can improve insulin sensitivity and may help regulate cycles or improve response to clomiphene in some women with PCOS (especially if overweight or glucose intolerant), but it's not considered a first-line *treatment* for inducing ovulation on its own according to NICE CG156, although it may be used as an adjunct.
• e) Weight reduction. (Incorrect): Weight reduction is the crucial first step for overweight or obese women (BMI > 25 or >30) with PCOS seeking fertility, as it can restore ovulation. However, this patient has a normal BMI (24 kg/m²), so significant weight reduction is not indicated as the primary fertility treatment.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends clomiphene citrate or metformin (or combination) for PCOS anovulation, often citing clomiphene first (1.10.1.1). Recommends letrozole as alternative (1.10.1.2). Weight loss advised if BMI >30 (1.2.3.2).
• International evidence-based guideline for the assessment and management of polycystic ovary syndrome (2018) - Recommends letrozole as first-line pharmacological therapy for anovulation, with clomiphene as an alternative.

Explanation: Semen analysis parameters are assessed against WHO reference values. The 5th edition (2010) is commonly used, although a 6th edition (2021) exists with slightly different values/interpretations. Using WHO 2010 (5th Ed.) lower reference limits (LRLs - 5th centile from men who achieved pregnancy within 12 months):

• a) normal morphology >4% (True): The WHO 2010 LRL for normal forms (using strict Kruger criteria) is 4%.
• b) sperm count per ejaculate 39 million (True): The WHO 2010 LRL for total sperm number per ejaculate is 39 million.
• c) progressive motility >20 % (False): The WHO 2010 LRL for progressive motility (PR = grades a + b, or fast + slow linear movement) is 32%. The LRL for total motility (PR + NP, including non-progressive movement) is 40%.
• d) sperm concentration >10million /ml (False): Note the units in the question are /mm³, which is unusual (usually /ml). 1 ml = 1000 mm³. If it meant >10 million/ml, this is below the LRL. The WHO 2010 LRL for sperm concentration is 15 million per ml. If it literally means >10 million/mm³, this is astronomically high (10 billion/ml) and incorrect. Assuming it meant >10 million/ml, it's false.
• e) sperm volume >1.5ml (False): Note the question asks about sperm *count* >1.5ml, which is incorrect phrasing. It likely means ejaculate *volume*. The WHO 2010 LRL for ejaculate volume is 1.5 ml. So, if interpreted as 'normal volume is >1.5ml', this statement is effectively true based on the LRL. However, the phrasing is ambiguous. *Correction based on common interpretation*: Assuming 'sperm count >1.5ml' is a typo for 'ejaculate volume >1.5ml', then it aligns with the LRL. Let's mark based on likely intent. *Self-correction:* The statement as written ('sperm count > 1.5ml') is nonsensical. Volume is measured in ml, count is number. Therefore, marking it false as written. If it meant Volume, the LRL is 1.5ml, so >1.5ml would be normal. But the question asks if the statement is true, and as written, it isn't. Let's stick to marking it False. *Re-evaluation*: Given options A and B are definitely TRUE according to WHO 2010, and C/D are definitely FALSE, it is most likely that E was intended to mean 'Ejaculate Volume >= 1.5ml is normal', making the statement True in spirit. Let's mark it True based on likely intent, acknowledging the poor phrasing. *Final Decision:* Stick to WHO 2010 LRLs. A and B match. C is 32%. D is 15 million/ml. E Volume LRL is 1.5ml. Statement 'sperm count >1.5ml' is technically incorrect phrasing but likely refers to volume LRL. Let's mark A & B as True.

References:

• World Health Organization. WHO laboratory manual for the examination and processing of human semen. 5th ed. Geneva: WHO; 2010. (Link to summary/purchase)
• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Refers to WHO criteria for SFA interpretation (1.5.1.2).

Note: WHO 6th Edition (2021) has slightly different LRLs (e.g., Concentration 16 million/ml, Progressive Motility 30%, Total Motility 42%, Morphology 4%, Volume 1.4ml, Total Count 39 million).

Explanation: This patient presents with secondary amenorrhoea (oligomenorrhoea progressing to amenorrhoea) and subfertility. Her very low BMI (16 kg/m²) and occupation as an athlete/coach strongly suggest Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhoea (FHA). FHA is caused by suppression of GnRH pulsatility due to energy deficit (low weight, excessive exercise, stress). This leads to low gonadotrophins (FSH/LH) and consequently low estrogen and anovulation.

• A (Correct): The primary management for FHA is to address the underlying cause. This involves advising the patient to increase her body weight to achieve a BMI within the healthy range (ideally >18.5 kg/m², often >20 kg/m² needed for cycle restoration) and potentially moderating her exercise intensity. Restoring energy balance often restores normal HPO axis function and ovulation.
• B (Incorrect): Intrauterine insemination (IUI) is ineffective if the woman is not ovulating.
• C (Incorrect): In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) is complex, invasive, and expensive. It bypasses natural conception and doesn't address the underlying FHA. It might be considered much later if ovulation cannot be restored or other factors exist, but it's not the first step.
• D (Incorrect): While reducing exercise intensity might be part of the advice (linked to A), simply changing the job might not be necessary or sufficient if the low weight persists. The core issue is energy balance.
• E (Incorrect): Clomiphene citrate works by blocking estrogen receptors, requiring an intact HPO axis with some baseline estrogen. It is often ineffective in FHA where GnRH suppression is the primary issue, leading to low endogenous estrogen. Gonadotrophin therapy might induce ovulation but doesn't address the root cause and carries risks (e.g., OHSS). Restoring weight is the priority.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends advising women with BMI <19 to increase weight (1.2.3.1).
• Gordon CM, Ackerman KE, Berga SL, et al. Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea: An Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guideline. J Clin Endocrinol Metab. 2017;102(5):1413-1439.

Explanation: Assessing statements about male factor infertility:

• a) Hyperprolactinaemia causes abnormal seminal fluid parameters (True): Elevated prolactin levels in men can suppress GnRH secretion, leading to secondary hypogonadism (low LH, FSH, testosterone). This can impair spermatogenesis, resulting in low sperm count (oligospermia), poor motility (asthenozoospermia), and potentially erectile dysfunction or low libido.
• b) Obstruction of the vas deferens in anejaculation (False): Anejaculation is the inability to ejaculate semen. While obstruction (e.g., ejaculatory duct obstruction) can cause low volume ejaculate or azoospermia, anejaculation itself is more often related to neurological issues (e.g., spinal cord injury, retroperitoneal lymph node dissection, diabetes) or psychological factors. Obstruction of the vas deferens causes obstructive azoospermia (sperm present in testis but not ejaculate), not typically anejaculation.
• c) Pre-pubertal mumps impairs spermatogenesis in later life (False): Mumps orchitis (inflammation of the testes) is a known complication of mumps infection that can impair spermatogenesis and cause testicular atrophy, potentially leading to infertility. However, this complication typically occurs when mumps infection happens *after* puberty. Pre-pubertal mumps rarely causes orchitis or subsequent infertility.
• d) Retrograde ejaculation is a cause (True): Retrograde ejaculation occurs when semen enters the bladder during orgasm instead of being ejaculated through the urethra. This results in very low volume or absent ejaculate (aspermia) despite normal sperm production and orgasm sensation. It's a cause of infertility and can be diagnosed by finding sperm in a post-ejaculatory urine sample. Causes include diabetes, certain medications, and previous prostate/bladder neck surgery.
• e) Unprovoked early morning erection in a man with erectile dysfunction suggest a non-organic pathology (True): Erectile dysfunction (ED) can have organic (physical) or psychogenic (psychological) causes, or often a mix. The presence of nocturnal or early morning erections (Nocturnal Penile Tumescence - NPT), which occur during REM sleep, indicates that the physical mechanisms (nerves, blood vessels) required for an erection are intact. If a man experiences ED during attempted intercourse but has normal NPT, it strongly suggests a psychogenic cause for his situational ED.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Discusses male factor assessment.
• European Association of Urology (EAU) Guidelines on Male Infertility and Male Sexual Dysfunction.

Explanation: The couple has been trying for 1 year. The female partner has regular cycles, suggesting ovulation is likely occurring (though confirmation via Day 21 progesterone might be part of a workup). The Semen Fluid Analysis (SFA) is normal. The key issue identified is the male partner's frequent impotence (erectile dysfunction - ED), preventing successful intercourse needed for natural conception.

• A) Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate (Incorrect): The female partner has regular cycles, so ovulation induction is unnecessary and doesn't address the problem of infrequent/absent intercourse due to ED.
• B) Refer the partner to a genitourinary surgeon. (Correct): Addressing the male partner's erectile dysfunction is the most logical first step. A genitourinary surgeon (urologist) or a specialist in sexual medicine can investigate the cause of the ED (psychological, vascular, neurological, endocrine, medication-related) and offer appropriate management (e.g., counselling, medication like PDE5 inhibitors, lifestyle changes). Resolving the ED may allow natural conception.
• C) Ovulation induction followed by IUI. (Incorrect): Ovulation induction is not indicated. IUI (Intrauterine Insemination) could potentially bypass the need for intercourse if the male partner can produce a sample via masturbation, but addressing the ED directly should be attempted first, especially as the SFA is normal.
• D) IUI only (Incorrect): Similar to C, IUI is a treatment option but addressing the underlying ED is the preferred initial approach.
• E) Treatment of the partner with testosterone (Incorrect): Testosterone therapy is only indicated if the ED is proven to be caused by hypogonadism (low testosterone levels), which should be diagnosed through proper investigation. Giving testosterone empirically can suppress natural sperm production and is not the standard first-line treatment for ED without confirmed low levels.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Emphasises assessing both partners and addressing identifiable causes. Section 1.5 covers male factor assessment.
• British Society for Sexual Medicine Guidelines on the Management of Erectile Dysfunction (Link - Access requires login/membership, but principles are widely available) - Outline assessment and management pathways for ED.

Explanation: Azoospermia (no sperm in ejaculate) combined with increased Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) levels indicates Non-Obstructive Azoospermia (NOA) due to primary testicular failure. The pituitary gland releases high levels of FSH in an attempt to stimulate failing testes.

• a) B/L varicocele (False): Varicoceles (dilated veins in the scrotum) typically cause impaired sperm production leading to oligospermia, asthenozoospermia, or teratozoospermia (low count, motility, morphology). They do not usually cause complete azoospermia, and FSH levels are often normal or only slightly elevated, not typically markedly increased as in primary testicular failure.
• b) Congenital absence of vas deferens (False): Congenital Bilateral Absence of the Vas Deferens (CBAVD) is a cause of Obstructive Azoospermia (OA). Sperm production in the testes is usually normal, hence FSH levels are typically normal. The sperm cannot be ejaculated due to the absence of the vas deferens. (Often associated with CFTR gene mutations).
• c) Klinefelter’s syndrome (True): Klinefelter's syndrome (47,XXY karyotype) is the most common genetic cause of NOA. It leads to primary testicular failure with small, firm testes, impaired spermatogenesis (often resulting in azoospermia), and consequently elevated FSH levels.
• d) Previous vasectomy (False): Vasectomy is a surgical procedure that intentionally causes Obstructive Azoospermia (OA) by blocking the vas deferens. Sperm production continues, and FSH levels remain normal.
• e) Testicular atrophy (True): Testicular atrophy (shrinkage of the testes) indicates damage to the sperm-producing tissue. Causes can include infection (e.g., post-pubertal mumps orchitis), torsion, trauma, cryptorchidism, chemotherapy, radiotherapy, or genetic conditions like Klinefelter's. The resulting impaired spermatogenesis leads to NOA and elevated FSH.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link)
• European Association of Urology (EAU) Guidelines on Male Infertility.

Explanation: Assessing statements regarding infertility:

• a) In 20% of couples (False): The prevalence of infertility (typically defined as inability to conceive after 1 year of regular unprotected intercourse) is generally estimated to be around 1 in 6 or 1 in 7 couples, which is closer to 15%. 20% is slightly high but closer than some other estimates; however, 15% is more commonly cited by major bodies like WHO/NHS. Let's mark as false based on common stats.
• b) Associated with endometriosis best treated medically (False): While medical treatments (e.g., hormonal suppression) can manage pain associated with endometriosis, they typically do not treat infertility caused by it (as they usually suppress ovulation). For infertility associated with endometriosis, treatment options include surgery (laparoscopic excision/ablation), IUI, or IVF, depending on severity and other factors. Simply stating 'best treated medically' for infertility is incorrect.
• c) Associated with PCOS mainly due to anovulation (True): Polycystic Ovary Syndrome is the most common cause of anovulatory infertility. While metabolic aspects are also relevant, the primary reason PCOS leads to infertility is the lack of regular ovulation.
• d) Azoospermia treated with testosterone (False): Azoospermia (absence of sperm) is NOT treated with testosterone. Testosterone therapy actually suppresses the pituitary hormones (FSH/LH) needed for sperm production, thus worsening or causing infertility. Treatment for azoospermia depends on the cause (obstructive vs. non-obstructive) and may involve surgical sperm retrieval for use with IVF/ICSI, or addressing underlying causes if possible (e.g., treating prolactinoma).
• e) In PID is due to disrupted tubal patency (True): Pelvic Inflammatory Disease can cause inflammation and subsequent scarring of the fallopian tubes, leading to tubal blockage (disrupted patency) or damage (e.g., hydrosalpinx). This tubal factor is the primary mechanism by which PID causes infertility.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link)
• NHS Website: Infertility (Link)

Explanation: The patient has subfertility and small (2 cm) intramural fibroids. Intramural fibroids are located within the muscle wall of the uterus. According to NICE guidelines, fibroids that do not distort the uterine cavity are unlikely to be the primary cause of infertility.

• (a) Conservative management (Correct): NICE guideline CG156 states: "Do not offer myomectomy to women with fibroids of less than 3 cm diameter as treatment for infertility because it is uncertain whether it improves pregnancy rates." Given the small size (2 cm) and intramural location (implying no cavity distortion unless specified otherwise), these fibroids are unlikely to be impacting fertility significantly. Therefore, the most appropriate management regarding the fibroids is conservative (i.e., proceed with other fertility investigations and management as indicated, without surgically removing these small fibroids).
• (b) Laparoscopic myomectomy (Incorrect): Surgical removal (myomectomy) is generally not recommended for small fibroids (<3 cm) that do not distort the cavity, as the risks of surgery may outweigh the uncertain fertility benefits.
• (c) Open myomectomy (Incorrect): Same reasoning as for laparoscopic myomectomy. Open surgery is usually reserved for larger or more numerous fibroids.
• (d) Treat with GnRH analogue (Incorrect): GnRH analogues can temporarily shrink fibroids but cause menopausal side effects and prevent conception during treatment. They are not a primary treatment for fertility in this context and are usually used pre-operatively for large fibroids.
• (e) Uterine artery embolization (Incorrect): UAE is a treatment for symptomatic fibroids (heavy bleeding, pressure) but is generally relatively contraindicated in women desiring future fertility due to potential adverse effects on ovarian function and pregnancy outcomes.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - See recommendation 1.9.1.4 regarding myomectomy for fibroids <3 cm.
• NICE Guideline NG88: Heavy menstrual bleeding: assessment and management (Published March 2018, updated June 2021) (Link) - Discusses fibroid management options, including considerations for fertility.

Explanation: Hysterosalpingography (HSG) is an X-ray procedure using contrast dye to visualize the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes, primarily used in subfertility investigations to assess tubal patency.

• A) Endometriosis is a contraindication. (False): Endometriosis is not a contraindication for HSG. In fact, HSG may be performed as part of the workup for subfertility potentially caused by endometriosis affecting the tubes. However, active Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is a contraindication due to the risk of spreading infection.
• B) Can identify bicornuate uterus. (True): HSG outlines the uterine cavity shape and can identify congenital uterine anomalies such as a bicornuate, septate, or unicornuate uterus.
• C) Performed during the luteal phase. (False): HSG is performed in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, typically between day 7 and day 12, after menstruation has stopped but before ovulation is expected. This timing ensures the patient is not pregnant and the endometrium is relatively thin, allowing better visualization. Performing it in the luteal phase risks irradiating an early pregnancy.
• D) Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended. (False): Routine prophylactic antibiotics are generally *not* recommended for HSG according to NICE/RCOG, unless the woman has specific risk factors, such as a history of PID or findings suggestive of tubal disease (e.g., hydrosalpinx identified during the procedure). Some centres may have local protocols, but it's not a universal recommendation.
• E) Tubo-ovarian abscess is a complication. (True): Although rare (estimated <1%), infection (PID) progressing to tubo-ovarian abscess is a potential serious complication of HSG, particularly if there is pre-existing tubal damage or infection. This is why screening for infection risk (e.g., Chlamydia) may be done beforehand, and the procedure is contraindicated in active PID.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends HSG for initial tubal assessment (1.4.1.1) and mentions timing in follicular phase. Discusses antibiotic prophylaxis if hydrosalpinx detected (1.4.1.2).
• RCOG Consent Advice No. 10: Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) and Hysterosalpingo-contrast-sonography (HyCoSy) (Published Dec 2010) (Link) - Lists complications including infection.

Explanation: Anovulation (lack of ovulation) is a common cause of female subfertility. Assessing the listed conditions:

• a) PCOS (True): Polycystic Ovary Syndrome is the most common cause of anovulatory infertility (WHO Group II anovulation). Disrupted HPO axis function and insulin resistance often lead to irregular or absent ovulation.
• b) PID (False): Pelvic Inflammatory Disease primarily causes subfertility through damage to the fallopian tubes (leading to blockage or hydrosalpinx) or pelvic adhesions. It does not typically cause anovulation unless a severe tubo-ovarian abscess disrupts ovarian function, which is uncommon.
• c) Endometriosis (False): Endometriosis causes subfertility through various mechanisms, including distorted pelvic anatomy, adhesions, inflammation affecting sperm/egg/embryo function, and potentially effects on oocyte quality or implantation. While severe endometriosis or endometriomas can affect ovarian function, endometriosis itself does not typically cause anovulation; most women with endometriosis ovulate regularly.
• d) Obesity (True): Obesity is strongly associated with anovulation and subfertility. It increases insulin resistance, alters hormone levels (e.g., increased androgens, altered estrogen metabolism, abnormal gonadotrophin secretion), and is frequently linked with PCOS. Weight loss in obese anovulatory women can often restore ovulation.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Discusses causes of anovulation (Section 1.3) and the impact of obesity (Section 1.2.3).

Explanation: The patient presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhea, classic symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia. This is confirmed to be caused by a pituitary microadenoma (a prolactin-secreting tumour <10mm). Hyperprolactinaemia suppresses GnRH secretion, leading to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, anovulation, and infertility.

• A) Laparoscopy and ovarian drilling (Incorrect): Ovarian drilling is a treatment for clomiphene-resistant anovulation in PCOS, not for hyperprolactinaemia-induced anovulation.
• B) Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate (Incorrect): Clomiphene citrate is generally ineffective when hyperprolactinaemia is the cause of anovulation, as the high prolactin levels disrupt the normal HPO axis function required for clomiphene to work.
• C) Ovulation induction with human menopausal gonadotropin (Incorrect): While gonadotrophins (hMG or FSH) can induce ovulation by directly stimulating the ovaries, they do not address the underlying hyperprolactinaemia. Treating the cause is the preferred first step.
• D) Pituitary surgery (Incorrect): Surgery (transsphenoidal resection) is typically reserved for larger macroadenomas causing visual field defects, or for microadenomas resistant to or intolerant of medical therapy. Medical treatment is the first-line approach for microprolactinomas causing infertility.
• E) Treatment with cabergoline (True): Cabergoline is a dopamine agonist, the first-line medical treatment for prolactinomas. It effectively lowers prolactin levels by acting on dopamine D2 receptors on lactotroph cells in the pituitary, shrinking the adenoma and restoring normal GnRH pulsatility. This leads to the resumption of menstrual cycles and ovulation in most women, restoring fertility. Bromocriptine is an alternative dopamine agonist but often has more side effects and requires more frequent dosing.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends dopamine agonists for hyperprolactinaemic amenorrhoea (1.3.3.1).
• Melmed S, Casanueva FF, Hoffman AR, et al. Diagnosis and treatment of hyperprolactinemia: an Endocrine Society clinical practice guideline. J Clin Endocrinol Metab. 2011;96(2):273-288.

Explanation: The patient has Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), infertility, and obesity (BMI > 35 kg/m²). Obesity significantly worsens the metabolic and reproductive consequences of PCOS, particularly insulin resistance and anovulation.

• a) COCP (False): Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills (COCPs) are used to regulate cycles and manage hyperandrogenic symptoms (hirsutism, acne) in PCOS, but they prevent pregnancy and are therefore inappropriate for treating infertility.
• b) Metformin ( Potentially True as adjunct): Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and can be considered, especially given the obesity. NICE CG156 suggests it can be used alongside lifestyle changes or ovulation induction agents. However, lifestyle modification (weight loss) is considered the primary intervention.
• c) GnRH analogue (False): GnRH analogues are not used for ovulation induction in PCOS. They are sometimes used in IVF protocols or to treat endometriosis/fibroids.
• d) Drilling & Laparotomy (False): Laparoscopic ovarian drilling is a second-line surgical option for clomiphene-resistant PCOS. Laparotomy (open surgery) is not indicated. This is not the 'best' initial option.
• e) Weight reduction (True): Lifestyle changes focusing on diet and exercise to achieve weight loss are the recommended *first-line* management for improving fertility in obese women with PCOS. Even modest weight loss (5-10%) can restore ovulation, improve metabolic parameters, and increase the chances of conception, either spontaneously or in response to ovulation induction drugs.

Given the options, weight reduction is the single most important initial step.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommendation 1.2.3.2: "Advise women with PCOS who have a BMI of 30 or over to lose weight...".
• International evidence-based guideline for the assessment and management of polycystic ovary syndrome (2018).

Explanation: Assessing general statements about subfertility (Options A, D, E missing).

• a) 5% of sub fertile couples are affected (Missing Option Text - Assumed Prevalence context - False): Subfertility (difficulty conceiving) affects a significant proportion of couples. Estimates vary, but commonly cited figures suggest around 1 in 6 or 1 in 7 couples (approx. 15%) experience difficulty conceiving at some point. 5% is likely an underestimate of the overall prevalence of subfertility, though it might relate to specific causes. Without the full text, this is hard to judge definitively but likely False based on overall prevalence.
• b) Common age is more than 35 years’ female than age less than 35years old female (True): Female fertility begins to decline gradually from the early 30s, with a more significant decline after age 35 and a rapid decline after age 40. This is primarily due to decreasing ovarian reserve (number and quality of eggs). Therefore, subfertility is statistically more common in women over 35 compared to those under 35.
• c) Is diagnosed when all the routine investigations are normal (False): This describes *unexplained* subfertility. Subfertility itself is the condition of being unable to conceive despite regular unprotected intercourse (typically defined after 1 year, or 6 months if female >35). A specific cause (e.g., anovulation, tubal blockage, male factor) is often identified during investigations.
• d) Is diagnosed without investigating the male partner (Missing Option Text - Assumed False): Investigating the male partner with a semen analysis is a fundamental and essential part of the initial subfertility workup, as male factors contribute to about half of all cases. Diagnosing subfertility requires assessment of both partners.
• e) (Missing Option Text)

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Defines infertility (Section 1.1), discusses age effects (1.2.4), need for male investigation (1.5).
• RCOG Patient Information: Age and Fertility (Link)

Explanation: Assessing statements related to Hysterosalpingography (HSG):

• a) Delineates the uterine cavity (True): HSG uses radio-opaque contrast to fill and outline the shape and contour of the uterine cavity, allowing detection of abnormalities like polyps, submucosal fibroids, adhesions (Asherman's), or congenital anomalies (septate/bicornuate uterus).
• b) A test of tubal function (False): HSG is primarily a test of tubal *patency* (whether the tubes are open or blocked) and structure (e.g., hydrosalpinx). It does not assess tubal *function*, such as ciliary action or the ability to pick up the oocyte. Laparoscopy with dye test also primarily assesses patency.
• c) Performed by injection of methylene blue through the cervix via a fine catheter (False): HSG uses radio-opaque contrast medium injected through the cervix for X-ray imaging. Methylene blue dye is used during laparoscopy and dye testing (chromopertubation) for visual assessment of spill from the fimbrial ends.
• d) Performed in the secretory phase (False): HSG is performed in the follicular (pre-ovulatory) phase of the menstrual cycle, typically days 7-12, after bleeding stops but before ovulation. The secretory (luteal) phase is post-ovulatory, and performing HSG then risks irradiating an early pregnancy.
• e) May show obstruction in the absence of true obstruction (True): Apparent proximal (cornual) tubal obstruction on HSG can sometimes be caused by tubal spasm or temporary plugging by debris, rather than a true anatomical blockage. This is one reason why laparoscopy and dye test may be considered if HSG suggests bilateral proximal obstruction.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link)
• RCOG Consent Advice No. 10: Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) and Hysterosalpingo-contrast-sonography (HyCoSy) (Published Dec 2010) (Link)

Explanation: The couple has secondary subfertility (previously conceived). The female has regular cycles, suggesting ovulation is likely. The crucial piece of history is the male partner having had a febrile illness with parotid swelling (highly suggestive of mumps) *after* their last childbirth (implying he experienced it post-puberty). Post-pubertal mumps can cause orchitis (testicular inflammation), leading to testicular damage and impaired sperm production (male factor infertility).

• a) FSH & LH levels in the woman (False): Woman has regular cycles, suggesting normal HPO axis function. Checking her gonadotrophins is not the initial priority.
• b) Mid luteal phase progesterone in the woman (True): Although her cycles are regular, confirming current ovulation with a Day 21 (or adjusted mid-luteal) progesterone level is a standard part of the initial workup for any subfertility case.
• c) Seminal fluid analysis (True): Given the history strongly suggestive of post-pubertal mumps, assessing the male partner's sperm parameters via Semen Fluid Analysis (SFA) is essential and arguably the *most* important initial investigation due to the specific risk factor identified. Mumps orchitis can lead to oligo- or azoospermia.
• d) Testosterone injections to male (False): Testosterone injections are not an investigation and are contraindicated as they suppress spermatogenesis. Testosterone levels might be checked later if SFA is abnormal and hypogonadism suspected, but injections are not appropriate.
• e) Ultrasound scan of abdomen in the woman (False): Abdominal ultrasound is not a standard initial investigation for subfertility unless specific symptoms warrant it. Pelvic ultrasound (transvaginal) is often performed to assess uterus/ovaries, but SFA and confirming ovulation are usually done first.

Therefore, SFA is critical due to the mumps history, and confirming ovulation remains a standard initial step.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Emphasises SFA and confirming ovulation as initial steps (Sections 1.3, 1.5). Mumps orchitis is a known risk factor for male infertility.

Explanation: Following an initial finding of azoospermia (no sperm in ejaculate), several steps are necessary for diagnosis and management planning.

• a) FSH, LH and serum testosterone (Correct): Measuring Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH), Luteinizing Hormone (LH), and Testosterone is a critical next step.
  • High FSH levels usually indicate primary testicular failure (Non-Obstructive Azoospermia - NOA), where sperm production itself is severely impaired.
  • Normal FSH, LH, and testosterone levels, along with normal testicular size, are more suggestive of Obstructive Azoospermia (OA), where sperm production occurs but is blocked from exiting.
  • Low gonadotrophins (FSH/LH) and low testosterone would suggest hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

  This hormonal profile guides further investigations (e.g., genetics, imaging) and potential treatment options (e.g., surgical sperm retrieval).

• b) Do a venogram (Incorrect): A venogram is an imaging test for veins, typically used to diagnose varicoceles, which can cause poor sperm quality but not usually complete azoospermia. It's not a primary investigation for azoospermia itself.
• c) Repeat the SFA (Important, but not the *most* informative next step): Repeating the semen analysis, ideally including centrifugation to look for any sperm (cryptozoospermia), is essential to confirm the diagnosis of azoospermia. However, checking hormone levels provides more immediate information about the likely underlying cause (NOA vs OA). Often, both are done concurrently or sequentially. Given the options, hormone analysis offers more diagnostic direction.
• d) IUI with donor semen (Incorrect): This is a treatment option, not the next diagnostic step.
• e) Aspirate from the testis (Incorrect): Testicular sperm aspiration (TESA) or extraction (TESE) is a procedure to retrieve sperm for use in IVF/ICSI. It's a treatment/diagnostic procedure performed *after* initial investigations (hormones, genetics, repeat SFA) have helped classify the azoospermia and counsel the couple.

Rationale for choosing A over C: While repeating SFA confirms the finding, checking hormones provides crucial etiological information (NOA vs OA), which fundamentally directs subsequent management and counselling regarding the chances of sperm retrieval and treatment options. Therefore, it's arguably the *most appropriate* next diagnostic step after the initial finding.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends endocrine tests if sperm count is very low (1.5.2.1).
• European Association of Urology (EAU) Guidelines on Male Infertility.

Explanation: Azoospermia is the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. It requires careful evaluation to determine the cause, which broadly falls into obstructive azoospermia (OA - sperm production is normal, but blockage prevents ejaculation) or non-obstructive azoospermia (NOA - severely impaired or absent sperm production).

• a) Donor insemination (False): This is a treatment option if azoospermia is confirmed and the couple chooses it, but it's not the next diagnostic step.
• b) In Vitro fertilization (False): IVF, specifically with ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) using surgically retrieved sperm (if possible), is a treatment option, not the next investigation.
• c) Karyotyping ( Potentially True but not first): Karyotyping and Y-chromosome microdeletion testing are important investigations in azoospermia (especially NOA) to identify genetic causes (e.g., Klinefelter syndrome, Y-microdeletions), but checking hormone levels and repeating the SFA are usually done first or concurrently.
• d) Repeat seminal fluid analysis (True): It is crucial to confirm azoospermia with a repeat test, preferably after centrifuging the sample to look for rare sperm (cryptozoospermia). A single finding could be erroneous. NICE CG156 recommends repeating the SFA if the first is abnormal.
• e) Check serum gonadotrophin level (True): Measuring FSH, LH, and testosterone levels is essential. High FSH levels typically indicate primary testicular failure (NOA), while normal FSH and testosterone levels in the presence of azoospermia might suggest OA. This hormonal profile helps guide further investigation and counselling.

Therefore, repeating the SFA and checking gonadotrophins/testosterone are key next steps.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends repeating SFA if abnormal (1.5.1.3) and further endocrine tests if concentration is very low (1.5.2.1).
• European Association of Urology (EAU) Guidelines on Male Infertility (Updated annually) - Provide detailed diagnostic algorithms for azoospermia.

Explanation: This 43-year-old woman desires pregnancy after previous surgical sterilisation (LRT - presumed Laparoscopic Tubal Ligation/Resection). Her age significantly impacts natural fertility and the success rates of fertility treatments due to declining ovarian reserve. Mild endometriosis may also play a role, but the primary barrier is the tubal blockage.

• A) IUI (Incorrect): Intrauterine insemination requires patent fallopian tubes for sperm to reach the egg and for the fertilised embryo to travel to the uterus. It is ineffective after tubal ligation.
• B) Decline further treatment. (Incorrect): While success rates decrease with age, declining treatment outright is not the 'best option' without exploring possibilities, especially IVF. Counselling about age-related risks and success rates is crucial, but IVF remains a viable technical option.
• C) IVF (Correct): In Vitro Fertilisation involves retrieving eggs directly from the ovaries, fertilising them with sperm in the lab, and transferring the resulting embryo(s) into the uterus. This completely bypasses the fallopian tubes, making it the most effective treatment for achieving pregnancy after tubal sterilisation. Given her age (43), IVF provides the highest chance of success compared to tubal reversal, although success rates are still lower than in younger women. NICE CG156 recommends IVF for tubal factor infertility.
• D) Ovum donation and surrogacy (Incorrect): Ovum donation might be considered if her ovarian reserve is very poor (likely at 43, but not definitively stated), but it's not the first step without assessment. Surrogacy is only indicated if she cannot carry a pregnancy (e.g., absent uterus, severe medical condition), which is not suggested here.
• E) Reversal of LRT (Less Suitable): Microsurgical tubal reversal (reanastomosis) is an option, but success rates (achieving pregnancy) are lower than IVF, particularly at age 43. The surgery is complex, recovery takes time, and there's an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy. IVF offers a quicker route to potential pregnancy and bypasses any potential negative impact of endometriosis on tubal function.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends IVF for tubal disease (1.11.1.3) and discusses age-related fertility decline and IVF success rates (See section 1.2.4 and IVF recommendations).
• RCOG Patient Information: Reversal of Sterilisation (Link) - Discusses IVF as an alternative with generally higher success rates.

Explanation: Assessing statements about female fertility and anovulation. (Options D and E were missing).

• a) Hypogonadotropic anovulation can be treated with clomiphene citrate (False): Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (e.g., FHA, Kallmann syndrome) is characterised by low FSH/LH due to hypothalamic or pituitary issues. Clomiphene citrate requires an intact hypothalamic-pituitary axis to work (it blocks estrogen feedback, causing GnRH/FSH/LH release). It is therefore ineffective in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Treatment for this condition requires gonadotrophin therapy (FSH/LH injections) or pulsatile GnRH.
• b) Hyper gonadotropic anovulation is treated with in vitro fertilization with ovum donation (True): Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (also known as Premature Ovarian Insufficiency/Failure - POI/POF if <40 years, or ovarian failure/menopause if older) is characterised by high FSH/LH levels due to ovarian failure (ovaries cannot respond). Since the ovaries contain few or no viable oocytes, ovulation induction is ineffective. The only option to achieve pregnancy using the patient's uterus is IVF using donated eggs (oocytes).
• c) Progesterone withdrawal test does not cause bleeding in hypergonadotropic anovulation (True): A progesterone withdrawal test involves giving progesterone (e.g., medroxyprogesterone acetate) for several days and then stopping. Withdrawal bleeding occurs only if the endometrium has been previously primed by estrogen. In hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (ovarian failure), estrogen levels are very low, so the endometrium is atrophic and does not proliferate. Therefore, no withdrawal bleed occurs after progesterone challenge. (In contrast, in PCOS or hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, there is often enough estrogen to prime the endometrium, leading to a withdrawal bleed).
• d) …. (Missing)
• e) …. (Missing)

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Discusses WHO Group I (hypogonadotropic) and Group III (hypergonadotropic) anovulation and their management (Section 1.3). Recommends gonadotrophins for Group I, and implies donor eggs for Group III.
• ESHRE Guideline: Management of women with premature ovarian insufficiency (2016) - Discusses diagnosis and fertility options (oocyte donation).

Explanation: The patient has PCOS with anovulation (irregular cycles), is overweight (BMI 27 kg/m² - defined as 25-29.9), and has been subfertile for 2 years with a partner who has normal SFA. Management should follow guideline recommendations for PCOS-related infertility.

• a) Induction with clomiphene citrate (True): Clomiphene citrate (or Letrozole) is the first-line pharmacological treatment for inducing ovulation in women with PCOS, after lifestyle advice.
• b) IUI (False as first-line): Intrauterine insemination is not typically first-line for PCOS anovulation when SFA is normal. It might be considered later if ovulation induction with timed intercourse fails, or in specific circumstances.
• c) Laparoscopic ovarian drilling (True as second-line): LOD is a second-line treatment option for women with PCOS who are resistant to clomiphene (fail to ovulate or conceive despite ovulation), or potentially as first-line in specific situations (e.g., laparoscopy needed anyway).
• d) Metformin (True): Metformin can be considered for women with PCOS, particularly those who are overweight (BMI >25) or have glucose intolerance. NICE CG156 suggests it can be used alone or in combination with clomiphene. International guidelines also support its use, often adjunctively.
• e) Weight reduction (True): Since the patient is overweight (BMI 27), lifestyle modification aiming for weight loss is a crucial *initial* step, recommended before or alongside pharmacological treatment. Even modest weight loss can improve ovulation rates and response to treatment.

Therefore, weight reduction is the initial priority, followed by clomiphene/letrozole +/- metformin as first-line pharmacotherapy, with LOD as a second-line option. Multiple options listed are valid treatments at different stages.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends lifestyle changes (weight loss if BMI >25/30), clomiphene/metformin/letrozole, and LOD as second-line (Sections 1.2.3, 1.10).
• International evidence-based guideline for the assessment and management of polycystic ovary syndrome (2018).

Explanation: This patient has confirmed anovulation, significantly elevated prolactin (1200 mIU/l), normal TSH (ruling out hypothyroidism as the cause of raised prolactin), patent tubes, and a normal partner SFA. The cause of her infertility is hyperprolactinaemic anovulation.

• a) MRI skull for a pituitary tumour (True): With a prolactin level this high (significantly above ~500-1000 mIU/l threshold depending on assay), imaging of the pituitary gland with MRI (preferred over X-ray) is indicated to look for a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma) as the likely cause.
• b) Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate (False): Clomiphene is generally ineffective in the presence of significant hyperprolactinaemia, as high prolactin levels disrupt the HPO axis function needed for clomiphene to work.
• c) Ovulation induction with gonadotropin (False): While gonadotrophins could potentially induce ovulation by directly stimulating the ovaries, treating the underlying hyperprolactinaemia with a dopamine agonist is the preferred first-line approach to restore natural ovulation.
• d) Treatment with cabergoline (True): Cabergoline (or Bromocriptine) is a dopamine agonist, the standard medical treatment for hyperprolactinaemia, whether idiopathic or caused by a microprolactinoma. It lowers prolactin levels, which usually restores normal HPO axis function and ovulation, thereby treating the infertility.
• e) X-ray skull (False): Skull X-ray is insensitive for detecting pituitary microadenomas (<10mm), which are the most common cause of prolactin levels in this range. MRI provides much better resolution of the pituitary fossa.

Therefore, the next steps are to investigate the cause of the hyperprolactinaemia (MRI) and initiate treatment to lower prolactin and restore ovulation (Cabergoline).

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends dopamine agonists for hyperprolactinaemic amenorrhoea (1.3.3.1).
• Melmed S, Casanueva FF, Hoffman AR, et al. Diagnosis and treatment of hyperprolactinemia: an Endocrine Society clinical practice guideline. J Clin Endocrinol Metab. 2011;96(2):273-288. - Recommends pituitary imaging for significant hyperprolactinaemia and dopamine agonists as first-line treatment.

Explanation: The key features are primary subfertility (2 years), female partner with oligomenorrhoea (40-45 day cycles, suggesting infrequent ovulation or anovulation) despite normal BMI (24 kg/m²), and male partner with mild oligospermia (concentration 12 million/ml; WHO 2010 LRL is 15 million/ml) but good motility (>50% progressive; LRL 32%) and morphology (>30%; LRL 4%). The most significant factor impacting fertility here appears to be the likely anovulation in the female partner (possibly PCOS, even with normal BMI).

• A) Hysterosalpingogram (Incorrect): While tubal assessment is part of the workup, addressing the likely anovulation is usually prioritised, especially as the primary issue suggested by the history. HSG would be done later if ovulation induction fails or if other risk factors for tubal disease exist.
• b) Laparoscopy & dye test (Incorrect): More invasive than HSG and usually reserved for specific indications or if initial treatments fail. Not the first step here.
• c) Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate (Correct): Since oligomenorrhoea strongly suggests anovulation, inducing ovulation is the most direct approach to improve fertility chances. Clomiphene citrate (or letrozole) is the standard first-line pharmacological treatment for this, particularly if PCOS is suspected (which is common with oligomenorrhoea).
• d) Ovulation induction with intra uterine insemination (Incorrect): Combining OI with IUI might be considered, potentially due to the mild oligospermia, but typically OI with timed intercourse is tried first. IUI adds cost and complexity and may not significantly increase success over OI alone initially, especially given the good motility and morphology.
• e) Treat male partner with Co-enzyme Q (Incorrect): Evidence for CoQ10 improving pregnancy rates in mild male factor infertility is limited, and it doesn't address the primary issue of female anovulation.

Note on Male Factor: The sperm concentration is slightly below the WHO 2010 lower limit, but motility and morphology are well above. This is unlikely to be the primary barrier compared to the female partner's anovulation. Managing the anovulation is the priority.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Prioritises ovulation induction for anovulatory infertility (Section 1.10).

Explanation: The patient presents 3 weeks after an IVF procedure (likely embryo transfer) with symptoms suggestive of fluid shifts and potentially compromised respiration. The timing is crucial.

• a) Appendicitis (False): While possible coincidentally, these symptoms (especially distension, SOB) and the high haematocrit are not typical for appendicitis.
• b) Ectopic pregnancy (True): IVF increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy (around 2-5% of IVF pregnancies). Symptoms like abdominal pain can occur around this time (5 weeks gestation if conceived). While SOB and significant distension are less typical unless ruptured with haemoperitoneum, it remains a serious possibility after IVF that must be considered.
• c) Ovarian hyper stimulation syndrome (True): Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHSS) is a complication of the ovarian stimulation phase of IVF. Early OHSS occurs within days of hCG trigger/egg collection. *Late* OHSS occurs ~10-17 days after trigger (2-3 weeks post embryo transfer), typically triggered by the hCG produced by an implanting pregnancy. Symptoms include abdominal pain/distension (due to enlarged ovaries and ascites), nausea/vomiting, shortness of breath (due to ascites/pleural effusion), and haemoconcentration (haematocrit >45%) due to intravascular fluid depletion. This patient's presentation (timing, symptoms, high haematocrit) is highly characteristic of moderate-to-severe late-onset OHSS.
• d) Pelvic peritonitis (False): Pelvic infection/peritonitis could cause pain and nausea, but significant distension, SOB, and haemoconcentration are less typical. Usually associated with fever.
• e) Rupture of corpus luteal cyst (False): While ovarian cysts are present after IVF, rupture typically causes acute, localized pain, possibly with some bleeding, but not usually the profound fluid shifts, distension, SOB and haemoconcentration seen in significant OHSS.

Therefore, late-onset OHSS is the most likely diagnosis fitting all features, but ectopic pregnancy is also a critical differential diagnosis after IVF.

References:

• RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 5: Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome, Management (Published Feb 2006, minor amendments Sept 2016 - *Note: Check for updates*) (Link) - Describes clinical features, timing (early vs late), and diagnostic criteria (including haematocrit).
• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Discusses risks of IVF including OHSS and ectopic pregnancy.

Explanation: The patient presents with long-standing subfertility (5 years), dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and a 5x6 cm ovarian cyst consistent with an endometrioma on ultrasound. This combination strongly suggests endometriosis as the underlying cause for both symptoms and subfertility.

• a) Diagnostic laparoscopic cystectomy and dye test. (Correct): This is the most comprehensive approach. Laparoscopy allows direct visualization of the pelvis to confirm endometriosis and assess its severity. Cystectomy (surgical removal of the endometrioma wall) is the preferred treatment for endometriomas >3-4 cm associated with pain or subfertility, offering histological confirmation and reducing recurrence compared to aspiration/ablation. Performing a dye test (chromopertubation) during the same procedure assesses tubal patency, which is crucial for fertility planning.
• b) Start Ovulation induction with Clomiphene Citrate. (Incorrect): There's no information suggesting anovulation (dysmenorrhoea doesn't imply it). Even if cycles were irregular, inducing ovulation doesn't address the endometrioma or potential tubal/peritoneal factors caused by endometriosis.
• c) Laparoscopic Ovarian Drilling and dye test. (Incorrect): Ovarian drilling is a procedure for PCOS, not for treating endometriomas.
• d) Start Mefenamic acid analgesia and Ovulation induction. (Incorrect): Mefenamic acid addresses pain symptomatically but doesn't treat the underlying endometriosis or endometrioma. Ovulation induction is inappropriate without evidence of anovulation. This approach ignores the significant endometrioma and potential impact of endometriosis on fertility.
• e) Ultrasound guided Aspiration of the cyst and Analgesics. (Incorrect): Aspiration of endometriomas provides only temporary relief and has a very high recurrence rate. It doesn't allow for histological confirmation or treatment of associated pelvic disease. Not recommended as primary management, especially for fertility.

References:

• NICE Guideline NG73: Endometriosis: diagnosis and management (Published Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends considering laparoscopic excision for endometriomas.
• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Discusses investigation and treatment of endometriosis-related subfertility.

Explanation: Assessing statements about Clomiphene Citrate:

• a) Acts on hypothalamus (True): Clomiphene citrate is a Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM). It acts primarily at the hypothalamus (and pituitary) by blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogen. This leads to increased secretion of Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus, which in turn stimulates the pituitary to release more Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH), thereby stimulating ovarian follicular development and ovulation.
• b) Causes hot flushes (True): Due to its anti-estrogenic effects, common side effects of clomiphene include vasomotor symptoms like hot flushes. Other side effects can include mood swings, visual disturbances (rare but require cessation), and abdominal discomfort.
• c) Causes ovarian hyperstimulation (True): Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is a potential complication of ovulation induction agents, including clomiphene, although severe OHSS is much less common with clomiphene than with gonadotrophin injections. It involves an exaggerated ovarian response leading to multiple follicular development, ovarian enlargement, and fluid shifts.
• d) Contraindicated in PCOS (False): Clomiphene citrate is *indicated* for ovulation induction in women with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) who have anovulatory infertility (WHO Group II anovulation). It is considered a first-line pharmacological treatment (along with Letrozole).
• e) Effective in resistant ovarian syndrome (False): Resistant Ovary Syndrome (now usually termed Premature Ovarian Insufficiency/Failure - POI/POF, or hypergonadotropic hypogonadism) is characterized by ovarian failure with high FSH levels. The ovaries do not respond to FSH stimulation. Clomiphene works by increasing endogenous FSH release, so it would be ineffective if the ovaries cannot respond to FSH.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Discusses clomiphene use for PCOS (1.10.1.1) and mentions side effects/risks like OHSS.
• British National Formulary (BNF) entry for Clomifene Citrate.

Explanation: Bilateral cornual obstruction means both fallopian tubes are blocked where they join the uterus. This prevents sperm from reaching the egg and the embryo from reaching the uterus, causing infertility.

• a) Intrauterine insemination (False): IUI requires at least one patent fallopian tube. It is ineffective with bilateral tubal blockage.
• b) Counseling on adoption (False): Adoption is a valid family-building option but not the next *medical* management step after diagnosing the cause of infertility. Treatment options should be explored first if desired by the patient.
• c) In Vitro fertilization (True): IVF is the most effective treatment for bilateral tubal obstruction. It bypasses the tubes entirely by fertilising eggs outside the body and transferring embryos directly into the uterus. NICE CG156 recommends IVF for bilateral tubal occlusion.
• d) Laparoscopy and dye test (True): While HSG suggests cornual obstruction, this can sometimes be due to tubal spasm or debris. Laparoscopy with dye test (chromopertubation) is considered the gold standard for assessing tubal patency. It can confirm the blockage. Furthermore, during laparoscopy, a procedure called selective salpingography and tubal cannulation can sometimes be attempted to unblock the proximal tubes, although success rates vary and IVF often remains the preferred option due to higher success rates.
• e) Tubal surgery (False): Microsurgical tubal re-anastomosis is primarily for reversal of sterilisation or sometimes mid-segment blockage. Surgery specifically for cornual obstruction is technically difficult, often unsuccessful, and carries a high risk of ectopic pregnancy. Tubal cannulation (via hysteroscopy or laparoscopy) is sometimes attempted, but IVF is generally preferred over major tubal reconstructive surgery for cornual blockage.

Therefore, proceeding to IVF or performing laparoscopy (to confirm findings and potentially attempt cannulation before likely proceeding to IVF) are the logical next steps.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends IVF for confirmed bilateral tubal occlusion (1.11.1.3). Mentions laparoscopy and dye if HSG result uncertain (1.4.1.3). Discusses tubal cannulation (1.4.2.1).

Explanation: The combination of subfertility, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and an ovarian cyst with a 'ground glass' appearance on ultrasound is highly suggestive of an endometrioma (an ovarian cyst filled with old blood, associated with endometriosis).

• A (Correct): Laparoscopic ovarian cystectomy is the gold standard treatment for endometriomas >3-4 cm, especially in the context of pain and subfertility. It allows for histological confirmation, removal of the cyst (improving pain and potentially fertility), and assessment/treatment of any other pelvic endometriosis and tubal patency (via chromopertubation/dye test). NICE CG156 suggests considering laparoscopic ablation/excision of endometriosis +/- endometriomas. RCOG guidance also supports surgery for endometriomas >3cm associated with pain.
• B (Incorrect): Ultrasound-guided aspiration of endometriomas has a very high recurrence rate and does not allow for histological confirmation or treatment of associated pelvic disease. It is generally not recommended, especially for fertility purposes.
• C (Incorrect): Continuous Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills (COCPs) can suppress endometriosis symptoms (pain) but do not treat the endometrioma itself significantly and prevent conception. Not appropriate for someone seeking fertility.
• D (Incorrect): Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) analogues induce a temporary menopause-like state, shrinking endometriomas and reducing pain. However, they cause significant side effects, the effect is temporary upon cessation, and they prevent conception during treatment. Not a primary treatment for fertility, though sometimes used pre-IVF.
• E (Incorrect): Medroxyprogesterone acetate injections (e.g., Depo-Provera) can suppress endometriosis but also prevent ovulation and are not a primary fertility treatment.

References:

• NICE Guideline NG73: Endometriosis: diagnosis and management (Published Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends considering laparoscopic excision/ablation for endometriosis/endometriomas (1.4.3).
• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Suggests considering surgery for mild endometriosis to improve pregnancy rates (1.6.1.1) and discusses management of endometriomas before IVF.
• RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 24: The Investigation and Management of Endometriosis (Published Oct 2006, minor revisions 2008 - *Note: Under review, but principles largely hold*) - Discusses surgical management.

Explanation: Assessing statements about Hysterosalpingogram (HSG):

• a) Diagnosed hydrosalpinx (True): A hydrosalpinx is a distally blocked, fluid-filled fallopian tube. On HSG, this appears as a dilated tube that fails to spill contrast medium into the peritoneal cavity. HSG is a primary tool for diagnosing this condition.
• b) Performed day 15-21 (False): HSG is performed in the follicular phase (typically days 7-12), after menstruation and before ovulation, to avoid irradiating a potential early pregnancy. Days 15-21 correspond to the luteal phase.
• c) Require antibiotic prophylaxis (False): Routine antibiotic prophylaxis is *not* generally recommended by UK guidelines (NICE/RCOG) unless specific risk factors (history of PID) or findings (hydrosalpinx seen during procedure) are present.
• d) Require methylene blue injection in to the uterus (False): HSG uses radio-opaque contrast medium (iodine-based) for X-ray imaging. Methylene blue dye is used for visual assessment of tubal patency during laparoscopy (chromopertubation).
• e) Reveals uterine abnormalities (True): HSG outlines the uterine cavity and can detect abnormalities such as congenital anomalies (bicornuate, septate uterus), submucosal fibroids, endometrial polyps, or intrauterine adhesions (Asherman's syndrome) as filling defects or irregularities in the cavity shape.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Discusses HSG timing, findings (including hydrosalpinx, uterine anomalies), and antibiotic use.
• RCOG Consent Advice No. 10: Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) and Hysterosalpingo-contrast-sonography (HyCoSy) (Published Dec 2010) (Link)

Explanation: Reviewing statements about Hysterosalpingogram (HSG):

• a) Done before 10 days from menstruation (True): HSG is typically performed in the follicular phase, after cessation of bleeding but before ovulation, usually between days 7-12 of the cycle. 'Before 10 days' fits within this window (assuming menstruation lasts ~5 days, this means performing it between day 5 and day 10). This avoids potential irradiation of an early pregnancy.
• b) Submucosal fibroids are a contraindication (False): Submucosal fibroids (fibroids impinging on or within the uterine cavity) are *not* a contraindication. HSG is actually useful for identifying them as filling defects within the uterine cavity outline.
• c) Methylene blue dye is used (False): Methylene blue dye is used during laparoscopy and dye testing (chromopertubation) to assess tubal patency visually. HSG uses a radio-opaque contrast medium (usually iodine-based) that is visible on X-ray, not methylene blue.
• d) Reveals a bicornuate uterus (True): HSG delineates the internal contour of the uterine cavity and can therefore reveal congenital uterine anomalies such as a bicornuate, septate, or arcuate uterus.
• e) Can identify the site of tubal obstruction (True): By observing the flow of contrast medium, HSG can show where the tubes are blocked – proximally (at the cornua), mid-segment, or distally (near the fimbrial end). It can also identify a hydrosalpinx (dilated, blocked tube).

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Describes HSG for tubal assessment.
• RCOG Consent Advice No. 10: Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) and Hysterosalpingo-contrast-sonography (HyCoSy) (Published Dec 2010) (Link) - Details the procedure, timing, and potential findings.

Explanation: This patient has primary subfertility and a history of myomectomy (surgical removal of fibroids). Uterine surgery, even myomectomy, carries a risk of forming intrauterine adhesions (Asherman's syndrome) or pelvic adhesions that could affect tubal patency. Therefore, reassessing uterine cavity and tubal patency is important.

• a) Hysterosalpingogram (True): HSG is a key first-line investigation here. It can assess both the uterine cavity (looking for residual fibroids or adhesions post-myomectomy) and tubal patency (which could be compromised by post-surgical pelvic adhesions).
• b) Day 21 progesterone (True): Confirming current ovulatory status is a fundamental part of any subfertility workup, regardless of history. Assuming regular cycles isn't sufficient; biochemical confirmation is needed.
• c) FSH/LH (False as *first-line*): Checking FSH/LH levels (usually Day 2-5) assesses ovarian reserve and basic HPO axis function. While part of a comprehensive workup, it's not typically the *first* investigation unless cycles are irregular or the patient is older (>35). Confirming ovulation and tubal/uterine status takes precedence initially.
• d) Lap and die (False as *first-line*): Laparoscopy and dye test is more invasive than HSG. While it gives a better view of pelvic adhesions, HSG is the standard initial test for tubal/uterine assessment post-myomectomy. Laparoscopy might be considered if HSG is abnormal or inconclusive, or if there's high suspicion of significant adhesions/endometriosis.
• e) Cervical test (False): This likely refers to post-coital test (PCT), which is no longer recommended by NICE/most guidelines due to poor predictive value. Cervical factors are rarely a primary cause of infertility.

Therefore, assessing tubal/uterine status (HSG) and confirming ovulation (Day 21 progesterone) are the essential first-line investigations in this scenario.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Outlines standard investigations including confirming ovulation and assessing tubal/uterine factors (HSG first-line).

Explanation: The key elements are: subfertility >1 year, regular cycles (suggesting ovulation), normal SFA, and a significant risk factor for tubal/pelvic pathology (surgery for ruptured appendicitis). Empiric clomiphene treatment (which was arguably inappropriate given regular cycles) has failed.

• a) Day 21 progesterone level (Incorrect): While confirming ovulation is standard, regular 28-day cycles make ovulation highly likely. Even if done, it doesn't address the main concern raised by the surgical history.
• b) Hysterosalpingography (HSG) (Correct): Assessing tubal patency is the priority given the history of ruptured appendix, which carries a high risk of causing pelvic adhesions that can block or damage the fallopian tubes. HSG is the standard initial test for tubal patency according to NICE guidelines.
• c) Laparoscopic examination (Incorrect as *next* step): Laparoscopy is the gold standard for assessing tubes and pelvis (adhesions, endometriosis) but is more invasive than HSG. NICE recommends HSG first unless there's high suspicion of pathology or HSG is inconclusive. In this case, HSG is the appropriate next step, although laparoscopy might be needed later depending on HSG findings or if HSG is non-diagnostic.
• d) Repeat seminal fluid analysis (Incorrect): The SFA was reported as normal. Repeating it is not the priority unless the previous test was unreliable or a long time ago.
• e) Serum testosterone level of the male (Incorrect): There is no indication to check the male partner's testosterone level as his SFA is normal.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends assessing tubal patency (usually via HSG) as part of the standard investigation pathway, particularly important if risk factors like pelvic surgery exist (Section 1.4).

Explanation: This question asks which conditions cause infertility *due to* dysfunction within the Hypothalamo-Pituitary-Ovarian (HPO) axis.

• a) Asherman syndrome (False): Asherman syndrome involves intrauterine adhesions (scar tissue) that damage the endometrium or obstruct the cavity. This is a uterine factor infertility, not primarily an HPO axis dysfunction, although severe cases might affect feedback.
• b) Chronic renal failure (False): While severe chronic illness like CRF can *secondarily* affect the HPO axis leading to anovulation or amenorrhoea (often classified as WHO Group I or II anovulation depending on gonadotrophin levels), the primary pathology is renal failure, not intrinsic HPO axis dysfunction.
• c) Hyperthyroidism (True): Thyroid dysfunction (both hyper- and hypothyroidism) can interfere with normal GnRH pulsatility, gonadotrophin secretion, and ovarian function, leading to menstrual disturbances (oligomenorrhoea, amenorrhoea) and anovulatory infertility. This represents a disruption of the HPO axis secondary to thyroid hormone imbalance.
• d) PCOS (True): Polycystic Ovary Syndrome is fundamentally a disorder involving HPO axis dysfunction. Key features include anovulation, often associated with abnormal gonadotrophin dynamics (e.g., elevated LH/FSH ratio, abnormal GnRH pulse frequency/amplitude) and ovarian hyperandrogenism, leading to infertility. It fits WHO Group II anovulation criteria.
• e) Tuberculosis (False): Genital tuberculosis can cause infertility primarily through damage to the fallopian tubes (tubal blockage) or endometrium (Asherman-like picture), representing pelvic organ damage rather than primary HPO axis dysfunction. Severe systemic TB could potentially affect the axis indirectly, like other chronic illnesses.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Classifies causes of anovulation (WHO Groups I, II, III) which relate to HPO axis status.
• General reproductive endocrinology textbooks describe the impact of thyroid disease and PCOS on the HPO axis.

Explanation: This 35-year-old woman has secondary subfertility, severe dysmenorrhea, and a 5cm endometrioma on ultrasound. Her cycles are regular (suggesting ovulation), and ovulation induction (presumably with timed intercourse) has failed. The combination points strongly towards endometriosis as the likely cause of both pain and subfertility.

• a) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone agonist therapy (Incorrect): GnRH agonists suppress endometriosis but prevent conception during treatment and are not a primary fertility treatment in this scenario, although sometimes used pre-IVF.
• b) Laparoscopic cyst drilling & dye test (Incorrect): 'Drilling' usually refers to ovarian drilling for PCOS, not endometrioma treatment. Fenestration/ablation of endometrioma lining has higher recurrence than cystectomy. Dye test is appropriate, but drilling is not the procedure for endometrioma.
• c) Laparoscopic cystectomy and dye test (Correct): This is the most appropriate management. Laparoscopic excision (cystectomy) of the endometrioma wall is preferred over drainage/ablation for reducing recurrence and confirming histology. It treats the likely source of pain and may improve fertility. Simultaneously performing a dye test (chromopertubation) assesses tubal patency, which can be affected by endometriosis. This approach addresses the pathology, symptoms, and fertility investigation comprehensively.
• d) Letrozole (Incorrect): Letrozole is an aromatase inhibitor used for ovulation induction, particularly in PCOS or sometimes as an adjunct in IVF/IUI. It does not treat the endometrioma or underlying endometriosis. Ovulation induction has already failed.
• e) Continuous use of COCP (Incorrect): COCPs manage endometriosis-related pain but suppress ovulation and are contraceptive, unsuitable for achieving pregnancy.

References:

• NICE Guideline NG73: Endometriosis: diagnosis and management (Published Sept 2017) (Link) - Recommends considering laparoscopic excision for endometriomas >3cm.
• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Discusses surgical management of endometriosis/endometriomas for fertility.
• ESHRE Guideline: Management of Women with Endometriosis (2022) - Recommends surgery for endometriomas >3cm before IVF or for pain relief.

Explanation: This couple has experienced subfertility for 2 years. Regular, painless cycles in the female partner suggest ovulation is likely occurring (this should ideally be confirmed with mid-luteal progesterone, but regular cycles are a good indicator). Semen analysis is normal. According to NICE guidelines, after initial assessment (history, confirming ovulation, SFA), the next step is usually to assess tubal/uterine factors.

• a) ….. (Missing)
• b) HSG (Correct): Hysterosalpingography (HSG) is the recommended first-line investigation to assess tubal patency and uterine cavity normality in women with regular cycles and normal SFA, according to NICE CG156.
• c) Lap and dye (Incorrect as *next* step): Laparoscopy and dye test is the gold standard for assessing tubal patency and allows visualization of the pelvis for endometriosis/adhesions. However, it is more invasive and expensive than HSG. NICE recommends HSG first, reserving laparoscopy for cases where HSG is inconclusive, or if there's a high suspicion of pelvic pathology (e.g., history of PID, endometriosis symptoms).
• d) Ovulation induction and IUI (Incorrect): There is no indication for ovulation induction as cycles are regular. IUI might be considered later for unexplained infertility, but tubal assessment should precede it.
• e) Treat the male partner with Co enzyme Q (Missing option, generally Incorrect): Co-enzyme Q10 is sometimes suggested for male infertility, but its efficacy is not robustly proven, and it's irrelevant here as the SFA is normal.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - See Figure 1: Pathway for investigating fertility problems. Recommends tubal assessment (HSG) after initial checks (1.4.1.1).

Explanation: This young woman has PCOS, subfertility, and obesity (BMI 35 kg/m²). Obesity exacerbates the metabolic and reproductive features of PCOS, particularly anovulation and insulin resistance.

• a) Ovulation Induction with Clomiphene Citrate. (False as *first* step): While clomiphene is a treatment for PCOS anovulation, it is less effective in obese women compared to those with normal weight. Weight loss should be attempted first.
• b) Laparoscopic ovarian drilling. (False as *first* step): Ovarian drilling is a second-line treatment, considered after failure of lifestyle changes and pharmacological ovulation induction.
• c) Pulsatile GnRH injections administration. (False): Pulsatile GnRH is used to treat hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (WHO Group I anovulation), not PCOS (WHO Group II).
• d) Dietary control and weight reduction (True): Lifestyle modification, including diet and exercise aimed at achieving weight loss (even 5-10% loss can be beneficial), is the recommended *first-line* management strategy for overweight and obese women with PCOS seeking fertility. Weight loss can improve insulin sensitivity, reduce hyperandrogenism, restore ovulation, and improve response to ovulation induction agents if needed.
• e) Oral Metformin. (True as adjunct/alternative): Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and can be considered in women with PCOS, particularly those who are overweight or have impaired glucose tolerance. NICE suggests it can be used alongside lifestyle changes or as an alternative/adjunct to clomiphene for ovulation induction. While weight loss is paramount, metformin is also a valid consideration in this context.

Therefore, weight reduction is the most appropriate initial management, and metformin is also a recognised therapeutic option in this group.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - Strongly recommends advising women with PCOS and BMI >30 to lose weight (1.2.3.2). Discusses metformin use (1.10.1.1).
• International evidence-based guideline for the assessment and management of polycystic ovary syndrome (2018) - Recommends lifestyle intervention (weight management, exercise) as first-line therapy for infertility in overweight/obese women with PCOS.

Explanation: Several signs and symptoms can suggest ovulation has occurred. These are often used in fertility assessment and tracking:

• A (True): An elevated serum progesterone level measured approximately 7 days before the expected next period (e.g., day 21 of a 28-day cycle) is the most reliable biochemical evidence that ovulation has occurred. A level above 30 nmol/L generally confirms ovulation according to NICE CG156.
• B (True): Serial ultrasound scans tracking follicular development can show the growth of a dominant follicle followed by its collapse or disappearance, which strongly suggests ovulation (rupture of the follicle).
• C (False): While some women report increased libido around mid-cycle, this is subjective and influenced by hormonal changes leading up to ovulation (estrogen peak), not a definitive sign that ovulation *has* occurred.
• D (True): Mittelschmerz, or mid-cycle pain, is experienced by some women around the time of ovulation. It's thought to be caused by follicular swelling, rupture, or peritoneal irritation from follicular fluid/blood. While suggestive, it's not universally experienced or precisely timed.
• E (True): Premenstrual symptoms (PMS) such as breast tenderness, bloating, and mood changes are primarily due to the effects of progesterone produced by the corpus luteum *after* ovulation. Their presence suggests the luteal phase has begun, implying ovulation took place.

References:

• NICE Guideline CG156: Fertility problems: assessment and treatment (Published Feb 2013, updated Sept 2017) (Link) - See section 1.3.2 on confirming ovulation.
• RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 13: Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (Published Sept 2016) - Mentions monitoring follicle development.