MCQs 09
💊MEDICATIONS 1-32 ⚖️FEDERAL REQUIREMENTS 33-42 🩺PATIENT SAFETY & QUALITY ASSURANCE 43-63 🧾 ORDER ENTRY & PROCESSING 63-80
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Tags: Medications
A. Which medication is a DPP-4 inhibitor?
Oops! Revisit the relevant guidelines.
Correct! Well done.
Explanation: Sitagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor used in type 2 diabetes. [Image of leukotriene receptor antagonist mechanism]
Reference: Standard Pharmacy Practice Guidelines
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B. Which drug is an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)?
Explanation: Fluticasone is an ICS for asthma control.
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C. Which medication is a DOAC (factor Xa inhibitor)?
Explanation: Apixaban inhibits factor Xa.
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D. Which antibiotic is a sulfonamide?
Explanation: TMP-SMX is a sulfonamide combination antibiotic.
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E. Which medication is used for opioid use disorder maintenance and is a partial agonist?
Explanation: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist.
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F. Which drug is a macrolide antibiotic?
Explanation: Clarithromycin is a macrolide. [Image of alpha-2 adrenergic receptor mechanism]
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G. Which medication is a proton pump inhibitor?
Explanation: Omeprazole is a PPI.
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H. Which medication commonly requires avoiding alcohol due to a disulfiram-like reaction risk?
Explanation: Metronidazole can cause severe reaction with alcohol.
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I. Which drug is an antiplatelet P2Y12 inhibitor?
Explanation: Clopidogrel inhibits platelet aggregation via P2Y12.
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J. Which medication is a short-acting opioid analgesic?
Explanation: Immediate-release oxycodone is short-acting.
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K. Which drug is an ACE inhibitor?
Explanation: ACE inhibitors end in “-pril.”
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L. Which medication is a beta-agonist rescue inhaler?
Explanation: Albuterol is a short-acting beta agonist (SABA).
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M. Which medication is a loop diuretic?
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic.
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N. Which medication treats chronic stable angina and is a nitrate?
Explanation: Isosorbide mononitrate is used for angina prophylaxis.
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O. Which medication is used for anaphylaxis (first-line)?
Explanation: Epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis.
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P. Which drug is an atypical antipsychotic?
Explanation: Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic.
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Q. Which medication is a statin?
Explanation: Statins end in “-statin.”
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R. Which drug is used for acute gout flares?
Explanation: Colchicine treats acute gout inflammation.
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S. Which medication is a tetracycline antibiotic?
Explanation: Doxycycline is a tetracycline.
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T. Which medication is an SSRI?
Explanation: Sertraline is an SSRI.
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U. Which drug is used for BPH and is an alpha-1 blocker?
Explanation: Tamsulosin relaxes prostate/bladder neck smooth muscle.
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V. Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity and requires REMS (classic)?
Explanation: Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic.
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W. Which medication is a long-acting insulin?
Explanation: Glargine provides basal coverage.
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X. Which drug is used for overactive bladder and is an anticholinergic?
Explanation: Oxybutynin reduces bladder spasms.
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Y. Which medication is a corticosteroid (systemic)?
Explanation: Prednisone is a systemic steroid.
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Z. Which medication is an H2 receptor antagonist?
Explanation: Famotidine blocks H2 receptors to reduce acid.
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AA. Which medication is a bisphosphonate for osteoporosis?
Explanation: Alendronate is a bisphosphonate. [Image of high-alert medication warning label]
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AB. Which medication is a benzodiazepine (Schedule IV)?
Explanation: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine.
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AC. Which medication is used to treat seizures?
Explanation: Levetiracetam is an anticonvulsant.
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AD. Which medication is used for smoking cessation (non-nicotine option)?
Explanation: Varenicline is a smoking-cessation agent.
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AE. Which drug interacts significantly with vitamin K intake?
Explanation: Vitamin K affects warfarin anticoagulation/INR.
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AF. Which medication is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (glaucoma/altitude)?
Explanation: Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase.
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Tags: Federal Requirements
AG. DEA Form 222 is used to:
Explanation: Form 222 is for ordering C-II drugs. [Image of DEA Form 222]
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AH. DEA Form 106 is used to report:
Explanation: Form 106 is for theft/loss reporting.
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AI. Federal minimum record retention for controlled substances is:
Explanation: Federal minimum is 2 years.
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AJ. Schedule II prescriptions:
Explanation: C-II prescriptions have no refills.
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AK. The federal transfer warning is required for:
Explanation: Transfer warning applies to C-III–V labels.
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AL. Under federal law, controlled substance inventory is required at least:
Explanation: DEA requires a biennial inventory.
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AM. Pseudoephedrine sales restrictions (CMEA) include:
Explanation: CMEA requires ID/logging and quantity limits.
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AN. Which schedule has the lowest abuse potential among controlled substances?
Explanation: Schedule V has the lowest abuse potential.
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AO. HIPAA is enforced by:
Explanation: HHS Office for Civil Rights enforces HIPAA.
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AP. DEA Form 41 is used for:
Explanation: Form 41 documents destruction.
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Tags: Patient Safety & Quality Assurance
AQ. A “near-miss” is an error that:
Explanation: Near-misses are intercepted before reaching the patient.
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AR. Tall Man lettering helps prevent:
Explanation: It distinguishes similar drug names. [Image of Tall Man lettering examples in pharmacy]
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AS. The final check before dispensing is performed by the:
Explanation: Pharmacists perform final verification.
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AT. Best practice for patient identification uses:
Explanation: Two identifiers reduce wrong-patient errors.
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AU. Which is protected health information (PHI)?
Explanation: PHI includes identifiable health info.
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AV. To prevent cross-contamination, counting trays should be cleaned:
Explanation: Cleaning between drugs prevents residue transfer.
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AW. High-alert medications require:
Explanation: Errors can cause severe harm.
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AX. USP primarily addresses:
Explanation: USP reduces exposure to hazardous drugs.
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AY. If a prescription is unclear, the technician should:
Explanation: Pharmacist must clarify with prescriber as needed.
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AZ. Barcode scanning at filling primarily helps prevent:
Explanation: Barcodes verify correct product selection.
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BA. Expired medications should be:
Explanation: Prevents dispensing expired product.
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BB. A LASA error refers to:
Explanation: LASA = look-alike/sound-alike.
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BC. Sharing PHI with someone not authorized is a:
Explanation: Unauthorized disclosure violates HIPAA.
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BD. Which organization is well-known for medication safety alerts and best practices?
Explanation: ISMP publishes safety guidance and error prevention.
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BE. Wrong-strength dispensed is classified as:
Explanation: The strength differs from the prescribed strength.
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BF. If a tablet’s appearance changes, the technician should verify the:
Explanation: NDC confirms correct product/manufacturer.
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BG. A medication error reporting program primarily exists to:
Explanation: The goal is system improvement and prevention.
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BH. A hazardous drug spill should be handled with:
Explanation: Proper PPE/spill kit reduces exposure. [Image of pharmacy hazardous drug handling PPE]
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BI. A documented allergy alert requires the technician to:
Explanation: Pharmacist must assess clinical risk.
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BJ. Counseling supports patient safety by improving:
Explanation: Counseling reduces misuse and adverse events.
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BK. The best privacy practice during counseling is to:
Explanation: Privacy reduces unintended PHI disclosure.
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Tags: Order Entry & Processing
BL. Rx: Take 1 tablet QID for 7 days. Quantity?
Explanation: 4 tablets/day × 7 days = 28.
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BM. “q8h” means:
Explanation: q8h = every 8 hours.
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BN. Rx: 5 mL TID for 10 days. Quantity?
Explanation: 15 mL/day × 10 days = 150 mL.
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BO. DAW 1 indicates:
Explanation: DAW 1 = prescriber requires brand.
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BP. A “refill too soon” rejection means:
Explanation: The plan limits early refills.
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BQ. Primary insurance is billed:
Explanation: Coordination of benefits bills primary first.
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BR. If quantity conflicts with directions, the technician should:
Explanation: Pharmacist must resolve discrepancies.
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BS. 0.25 g equals:
Explanation: 1 g = 1000 mg → 0.25 g = 250 mg.
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BT. “qhs” means:
Explanation: qhs = at bedtime.
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BU. NDC mismatch during filling: best action is to:
Explanation: Product mismatch requires pharmacist review.
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BV. Which element is required on a prescription label?
Explanation: Pharmacy name/address is required.
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BW. “qod” means:
Explanation: qod = every other day.
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BX. A prior authorization rejection typically means:
Explanation: PA requires prescriber/insurer approval.
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BY. Which prescriptions are generally transferable (federal concept)?
Explanation: C-III–V can be transferred with restrictions.
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BZ. Rx: Take 2 tablets daily for 30 days. Quantity?
Explanation: 2/day × 30 = 60.
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CA. A task outside a typical technician’s scope is:
Explanation: Clinical decisions are pharmacist-only.
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CB. Partial fills of Schedule II medications must follow:
Explanation: Schedule II partial fills are legally regulated.
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