MCQs 07
💊MEDICATIONS 1-32 ⚖️FEDERAL REQUIREMENTS 33-42 🩺PATIENT SAFETY & QUALITY ASSURANCE 43-63 🧾 ORDER ENTRY & PROCESSING 63-80
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Tags: Medications
A. Which medication is a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)?
Oops! Revisit the relevant guidelines.
Correct! Well done.
Explanation: Salmeterol provides long-term bronchodilation.
Reference: Standard Pharmacy Practice Guidelines
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B. Which drug is a first-generation antihistamine?
Explanation: First-generation antihistamines cause sedation. [Image of nephron distal convoluted tubule]
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C. Which medication is used to reverse opioid overdose?
Explanation: Naloxone rapidly reverses opioid effects.
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D. Which drug is a potassium supplement?
Explanation: Potassium chloride replaces potassium. [Image of gastric parietal cell proton pump mechanism]
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E. Which medication is a bisphosphonate?
Explanation: Bisphosphonates prevent bone resorption.
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F. Which drug is used to treat GERD short term?
Explanation: H2 blockers reduce acid secretion.
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G. Which insulin is intermediate-acting?
Explanation: NPH provides intermediate basal control.
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H. Which medication is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?
Explanation: Used for glaucoma and altitude sickness.
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I. Which drug treats acute migraine?
Explanation: Triptans abort migraine attacks.
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J. Which medication is an oral antifungal?
Explanation: Terbinafine treats systemic fungal infections.
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K. Which drug is used to treat gout chronically?
Explanation: Allopurinol reduces uric acid production.
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L. Which medication lowers heart rate?
Explanation: Beta blockers reduce heart rate.
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M. Which antibiotic is a cephalosporin?
Explanation: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin.
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N. Which medication is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
Explanation: SSRIs selectively inhibit serotonin.
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O. Which drug treats nausea?
Explanation: Ondansetron blocks serotonin receptors.
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P. Which medication requires tapering when discontinued?
Explanation: Steroids must be tapered to avoid adrenal crisis.
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Q. Which drug is Schedule III?
Explanation: Combination codeine products are Schedule III.
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R. Which medication is an alpha-1 blocker?
Explanation: Alpha blockers improve urine flow.
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S. Which drug treats seizures?
Explanation: Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant.
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T. Which medication is a sulfonylurea?
Explanation: Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin release.
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U. Which drug treats insomnia?
Explanation: Zolpidem is a hypnotic.
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V. Which medication is an antiplatelet?
Explanation: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation.
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W. Which drug treats Parkinson’s disease?
Explanation: Levodopa increases dopamine.
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X. Which medication treats constipation?
Explanation: Psyllium is a bulk-forming laxative.
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Y. Which drug is a direct Xa inhibitor?
Explanation: Rivaroxaban inhibits factor Xa.
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Z. Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy?
Explanation: Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic.
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AA. Which drug is a leukotriene receptor antagonist?
Explanation: Montelukast prevents asthma symptoms.
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AB. Which medication is an opioid antagonist?
Explanation: Naloxone reverses opioids.
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AC. Which drug lowers blood pressure by vasodilation?
Explanation: Hydralazine relaxes vascular smooth muscle.
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AD. Which medication is a topical corticosteroid?
Explanation: Hydrocortisone reduces inflammation.
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AE. Which drug is Schedule IV?
Explanation: Benzodiazepines are Schedule IV.
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AF. Which medication treats hypothyroidism?
Explanation: Levothyroxine replaces thyroid hormone.
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Tags: Federal Requirements
AG. DEA Form 224 is used to:
Explanation: DEA 224 registers entities. [Image of DEA Form 224]
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AH. Controlled substance inventories must include:
Explanation: Inventory must list name and quantity.
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AI. Schedule II prescriptions may be refilled:
Explanation: No refills allowed for C-II.
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AJ. Pseudoephedrine sales require:
Explanation: ID is required under CMEA.
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AK. Federal law requires C-III–V prescriptions to be kept for:
Explanation: Minimum is 2 years.
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AL. Which schedule has the lowest abuse potential?
Explanation: Schedule V has lowest abuse risk.
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AM. A DEA number is required for:
Explanation: DEA numbers authorize control prescribing.
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AN. Which form reports controlled substance destruction?
Explanation: DEA 41 documents destruction.
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AO. Which agency enforces HIPAA?
Explanation: HHS enforces HIPAA regulations.
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AP. Emergency C-II prescriptions must be reduced to writing within:
Explanation: Prescriber must follow up within 7 days federally
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Tags: Patient Safety & Quality Assurance
AQ. A LASA error refers to:
Explanation: Look-alike/sound-alike drugs.
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AR. Which step prevents dispensing errors?
Explanation: Barcodes verify correct drug. [Image of Tall Man lettering examples in pharmacy]
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AS. A near-miss is an error that:
Explanation: Intercepted before patient exposure.
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AT. Which is PHI?
Explanation: Identifiable patient information.
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AU. High-alert medications require:
Explanation: Errors cause serious harm.
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AV. Which organization focuses on medication safety?
Explanation: ISMP promotes safe medication practices.
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AW. Proper hand hygiene reduces:
Explanation: Prevents contamination.
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AX. Final prescription verification is done by:
Explanation: Pharmacist is responsible.
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AY. An unclear prescription should be:
Explanation: Requires pharmacist clarification.
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AZ. Patient counseling improves:
Explanation: Counseling improves correct use.
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BA. Expired drugs must be:
Explanation: Prevents accidental use.
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BB. HIPAA violations involve:
Explanation: PHI must be protected.
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BC. Which reduces contamination risk?
Explanation: Removes residue.
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BD. Medication error reporting aims to:
Explanation: Focuses on system improvement.
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BE. USP applies to:
Explanation: Protects staff from exposure. [Image of pharmacy hazardous drug handling PPE]
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BF. Two patient identifiers help prevent:
Explanation: Confirms patient identity.
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BG. Which requires immediate pharmacist attention?
Explanation: Allergies require clinical judgment.
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BH. QA programs primarily focus on:
Explanation: Patient safety is priority.
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BI. A medication spill should be handled using:
Explanation: Spill kits ensure safety.
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BJ. If an error is discovered after dispensing:
Explanation: Errors must be addressed properly.
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Tags: Order Entry & Processing
BK. Rx: 1 tablet QID for 5 days. Quantity?
Explanation: 4/day × 5 = 20.
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BL. DAW code 2 means:
Explanation: DAW 2 = patient preference.
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BM. “qod” means:
Explanation: qod = every other day.
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BN. Which insurance is billed first?
Explanation: Primary insurance pays first.
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BO. An NDC mismatch requires:
Explanation: Requires pharmacist review.
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BP. “Refill too soon” means:
Explanation: Requested before allowed date.
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BQ. Which must appear on a prescription label?
Explanation: Required by law.
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BR. If quantity conflicts with directions, technician should:
Explanation: Pharmacist must clarify.
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BS. “tid” means:
Explanation: tid = three times daily.
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BT. Liquid Rx: 10 mL BID for 6 days equals:
Explanation: 20/day × 6 = 120.
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BU. Which prescription can be transferred?
Explanation: C-III–V may be transferred.
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BV. “qhs” means:
Explanation: qhs = nightly.
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BW. Which task is outside technician scope?
Explanation: Clinical decisions are pharmacist-only.
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BX. A prior authorization rejection means:
Explanation: Approval needed before coverage.
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BY. 0.25 g equals:
Explanation: 1 g = 1,000 mg.
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BZ. Step after data entry:
Explanation: Pharmacist verifies next.
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CA. Partial fills of Schedule II drugs follow:
Explanation: Governed by law.
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