MCQs 04
💊MEDICATIONS 1-32 ⚖️FEDERAL REQUIREMENTS 33-42 🩺PATIENT SAFETY & QUALITY ASSURANCE 43-63 🧾 ORDER ENTRY & PROCESSING 63-80
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Tags: Medications
A. Which medication is a calcium channel blocker?
Oops! Revisit the relevant guidelines.
Correct! Well done.
Explanation: Diltiazem blocks calcium channels to reduce heart rate and blood pressure. [Image of calcium channel blocker mechanism of action]
Reference: Standard Pharmacy Practice Guidelines
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B. Which drug is a loop diuretic?
Explanation: Loop diuretics act on the loop of Henle. [Image of nephron loop of Henle]
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C. Which insulin is intermediate-acting?
Explanation: NPH provides intermediate basal coverage.
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D. Which medication is a proton pump inhibitor?
Explanation: PPIs end in “-prazole” and suppress gastric acid.
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E. Which drug treats hyperthyroidism?
Explanation: Methimazole reduces thyroid hormone production.
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F. Which medication is a nonselective beta blocker?
Explanation: Propranolol blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
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G. Which medication is Schedule III?
Explanation: Combination products with codeine are Schedule III.
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H. Which medication should be taken with food to reduce GI upset?
Explanation: NSAIDs should be taken with food to reduce irritation.
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I. Which drug is an SNRI?
Explanation: Duloxetine affects serotonin and norepinephrine.
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J. Which medication is first-line for type 1 diabetes?
Explanation: Type 1 diabetes requires insulin replacement.
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K. Which drug is an ARB?
Explanation: ARBs end in “-sartan”.
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L. Which medication lowers triglycerides?
Explanation: Fibrates are effective for high triglycerides.
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M. Which antibiotic should not be taken with dairy products?
Explanation: Calcium reduces tetracycline absorption.
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N. Which drug is a benzodiazepine?
Explanation: Benzodiazepines end in “-pam” or “-lam”.
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O. Which medication treats Parkinson’s disease?
Explanation: Levodopa increases dopamine levels. [Image of carbidopa-levodopa mechanism in Parkinson’s disease]
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P. Which anticoagulant does NOT require routine lab monitoring?
Explanation: DOACs like apixaban do not require INR monitoring.
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Q. Which medication is high-alert?
Explanation: Insulin errors can cause severe hypoglycemia.
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R. Which drug treats neuropathic pain?
Explanation: Gabapentin is used for nerve pain.
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S. Which diuretic is potassium-sparing?
Explanation: Potassium-sparing diuretics conserve potassium.
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T. Which medication is a corticosteroid?
Explanation: Corticosteroids reduce inflammation and immune response.
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U. Which drug is used for smoking cessation?
Explanation: Bupropion reduces nicotine cravings.
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V. Which medication treats erectile dysfunction?
Explanation: PDE-5 inhibitors increase blood flow.
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W. Which asthma medication is a rescue inhaler?
Explanation: Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator.
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X. Which medication is a skeletal muscle relaxant?
Explanation: Cyclobenzaprine relieves muscle spasms.
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Y. Which drug is a TCA?
Explanation: TCAs are older antidepressants.
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Z. Which medication prevents bone loss?
Explanation: Bisphosphonates slow bone resorption. [Image of bone remodeling cycle and osteoclasts]
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AA. Which drug interacts with vitamin K intake?
Explanation: Vitamin K alters warfarin effectiveness.
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AB. Which medication is an anticonvulsant?
Explanation: Valproic acid treats seizures.
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AC. Which medication is an H2 receptor antagonist?
Explanation: H2 blockers reduce acid secretion.
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AD. Which medication treats overactive bladder?
Explanation: Anticholinergics reduce bladder spasms.
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AE. Which drug is Schedule IV?
Explanation: Benzodiazepines are Schedule IV.
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AF. Which medication is first-line for type 2 diabetes?
Explanation: Metformin improves insulin sensitivity.
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Tags: Federal Requirements
AG. Which DEA form is used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances?
Explanation: DEA Form 106 is required to report theft or loss. [Image of DEA Form 106]
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AH. How often must a controlled substance inventory be conducted at minimum?
Explanation: Federal law requires a biennial inventory.
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AI. Which schedule allows refills under federal law?
Explanation: Schedule III–V prescriptions may be refilled with limits.
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AJ. DEA Form 222 is required to:
Explanation: Schedule II drugs require DEA Form 222 for ordering. [Image of DEA Form 222]
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AK. Which controlled substance schedule has no accepted medical use?
Explanation: Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use.
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AL. The federal transfer warning must appear on labels for:
Explanation: Required for Schedule III–V medications.
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AM. What is the daily sales limit for pseudoephedrine under federal law?
Explanation: CMEA limits sales to 3.6 g per day.
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AN. Which agency enforces federal controlled substance laws?
Explanation: The DEA enforces controlled substance regulations.
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AO. How long must controlled substance records be retained federally?
Explanation: Federal law requires a minimum of 2 years.
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AP. A prescriber’s DEA number is primarily used to verify:
Explanation: DEA numbers confirm authority to prescribe controlled substances.
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Tags: Patient Safety & Quality Assurance
AQ. Dispensing the correct drug to the wrong patient is a:
Explanation: The medication reached the incorrect patient.
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AR. Tall Man lettering is designed to reduce:
Explanation: It highlights differences in similar drug names. [Image of Tall Man lettering examples in pharmacy]
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AS. Expired medications should be:
Explanation: Expired drugs must be removed from active stock.
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AT. Which is an example of protected health information (PHI)?
Explanation: Medication profiles contain identifiable patient data.
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AU. Who performs the final prescription verification?
Explanation: Final verification is the pharmacist’s responsibility.
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AV. The primary goal of quality assurance programs is to:
Explanation: QA focuses on patient safety.
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AW. A near-miss error is one that:
Explanation: Near-misses are intercepted before patient exposure.
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AX. To prevent cross-contamination, counting trays should be:
Explanation: Cleaning between drugs prevents residue transfer.
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AY. HIPAA violations occur when:
Explanation: Unauthorized disclosure violates HIPAA.
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AZ. Which organization publishes lists of error-prone abbreviations?
Explanation: ISMP identifies unsafe abbreviations.
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BA. An unclear prescription should be:
Explanation: Only pharmacists may clarify prescriptions.
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BB. High-alert medications require:
Explanation: Errors can cause serious harm.
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BC. USP standards apply to:
Explanation: USP protects staff from hazardous drugs. [Image of pharmacy hazardous drug handling PPE]
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BD. Dispensing the wrong strength is a:
Explanation: The dosage strength is incorrect.
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BE. If a medication appears different, the technician should verify the:
Explanation: NDC confirms correct product and manufacturer.
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BF. Using two patient identifiers helps prevent:
Explanation: Two identifiers confirm patient identity.
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BG. Proper patient counseling ensures:
Explanation: Counseling improves correct and safe use.
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BH. A technician discovers an error after dispensing. What should be done?
Explanation: Errors must be documented for safety.
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BI. Which practice best protects patient privacy?
Explanation: Private areas reduce unintended disclosure.
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BJ. The purpose of medication error reporting systems is to:
Explanation: Reporting identifies system improvements.
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BK. Which situation requires immediate pharmacist involvement?
Explanation: Allergies require clinical judgment.
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Tags: Order Entry & Processing
BL. Rx: Take 2 tablets daily for 10 days. Quantity?
Explanation: 2 tablets/day × 10 days = 20 tablets.
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BM. DAW code 2 indicates:
Explanation: DAW 2 = patient preference.
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BN. A “prior authorization required” rejection means:
Explanation: Prior authorizations are initiated by prescribers.
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BO. 0.75 grams equals:
Explanation: 1 g = 1,000 mg.
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BP. Which insurance plan is billed first?
Explanation: Primary insurance is billed first.
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BQ. The abbreviation “q12h” means:
Explanation: q12h = every 12 hours.
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BR. If the NDC scanned does not match the label, the technician should:
Explanation: NDC mismatches require pharmacist review.
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BS. Which item must appear on a prescription label?
Explanation: Federal law requires the pharmacy name and address.
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BT. A “refill too soon” rejection indicates:
Explanation: The refill is requested before allowed time.
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BU. Which step follows data entry in workflow?
Explanation: Verification occurs before filling.
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BV. Liquid Rx: 7.5 mL TID for 4 days equals:
Explanation: 22.5 mL/day × 4 days = 90 mL.
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BW. If directions conflict with quantity, the technician should:
Explanation: Conflicts require pharmacist clarification.
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BX. Which prescriptions may be transferred between pharmacies?
Explanation: Schedule III–V prescriptions may be transferred.
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BY. “qhs” means:
Explanation: qhs = every night at bedtime.
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BZ. Which situation requires contacting the prescriber?
Explanation: Dosage clarification requires prescriber input.
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CA. Which task is outside a technician’s scope of practice?
Explanation: Clinical decisions are pharmacist-only tasks.
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CB. Partial fills of Schedule II medications must follow:
Explanation: Schedule II partial fills are governed by law.
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