/124

Report a question

You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details.

PCCN Quiz -15

1 / 124

A. A patient with severe asthma exacerbation has a silent chest on auscultation. What does this finding most likely indicate?

2 / 124

B. A patient with Addisonian crisis presents with hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. Which therapy is most urgent?

3 / 124

C. A patient asks, “Why do I need to wear this sling after shoulder surgery?” What is the nurse’s best response?

4 / 124

D. A patient with subarachnoid hemorrhage develops acute severe headache and nuchal rigidity. Which diagnostic test is most sensitive in the first 24 hours?

5 / 124

E. A patient with acute myocardial infarction develops new onset systolic murmur and pulmonary edema. Which complication is most likely?

6 / 124

F. A charge nurse is delegating assignments. Which is appropriate for a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?

7 / 124

G. A patient with limited English proficiency is about to receive complex medication teaching. What is the nurse’s best action?

8 / 124

H. A nurse overhears a colleague sharing a patient’s diagnosis in the elevator with visitors present. What is the most appropriate action?

9 / 124

I. A patient’s son becomes upset, saying, “You’re not telling us the whole story about my mother’s prognosis.” What is the nurse’s best response?

10 / 124

J. A patient with cirrhosis and ascites has fever, abdominal pain, PMN count ≥250 cells/mm³ in ascitic fluid. Best initial therapy?

11 / 124

K. A patient with community-acquired pneumonia is hospitalized. Which factor most strongly indicates the need for ICU admission?

12 / 124

L. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is treated with insulin infusion. Later, he develops lethargy, seizures, and serum sodium of 118 mmol/L. What is the most likely cause?

13 / 124

M. A patient with acute kidney injury has oliguria, rising creatinine, and pulmonary edema. Which therapy is indicated?

14 / 124

N. A patient with acute COPD exacerbation shows increasing PaCO₂ and drowsiness. Which intervention is most appropriate?

15 / 124

O. A patient presents with severe upper GI bleeding and hypotension. What is the priority nursing action?

16 / 124

P. A patient with septic shock remains hypotensive despite fluid resuscitation. What is the first-line vasopressor recommended?

17 / 124

Q. A patient with traumatic spinal cord injury develops bradycardia, hypotension, and warm extremities. What is the underlying shock type?

18 / 124

R. A patient with sepsis has lactic acidosis and requires additional monitoring after fluid resuscitation. Which invasive device provides the most accurate assessment of preload and cardiac output?

19 / 124

S. A patient admitted with traumatic brain injury has ICP of 28 mmHg. Which intervention is most appropriate?

20 / 124

T. An adult in generalized convulsive status epilepticus continues seizing on arrival. What is the first-line medication?

21 / 124

U. A patient with suspected upper GI bleed is hypotensive and tachycardic. After stabilization, which medication should be started?

22 / 124

V. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure has pulmonary edema and oxygen saturation of 84% despite supplemental O₂. Which therapy should be initiated?

23 / 124

W. A patient develops sudden right-sided weakness and facial droop. CT scan shows no hemorrhage. What is the next immediate step in management?

24 / 124

X. A patient with cirrhosis presents with confusion, asterixis, and elevated ammonia levels. What is the primary pharmacologic treatment?

25 / 124

Y. A patient with terminal illness says, “I want comfort only, no more aggressive treatments.” What is the nurse’s best action?

26 / 124

Z. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is being treated with insulin infusion. Glucose is now 190 mg/dL, but acidosis persists. What is the next step in management?

27 / 124

AA. A provider begins preparing to perform a bedside procedure without verifying the patient’s consent. What is the priority nursing action?

28 / 124

AB. A patient becomes frustrated when told they must remain NPO before surgery. What is the nurse’s best response?

29 / 124

AC. A patient with upper GI bleed presents with hematemesis and is hemodynamically stabilized. Which medication should be initiated before endoscopy?

30 / 124

AD. A nurse notices that a patient’s blood glucose result indicating severe hypoglycemia has not been reported to the provider. What is the best action?

31 / 124

AE. A patient with acute pulmonary edema due to decompensated heart failure is in severe respiratory distress. Which intervention provides the fastest symptomatic relief?

32 / 124

AF. A nurse notices that a critical lab result was entered into the system but not communicated to the provider. What is the best action?

33 / 124

AG. A patient with acute coronary syndrome is started on heparin infusion. The nurse notes a drop in platelet count from 220,000 to 90,000 within 5 days. What is the most likely complication?

34 / 124

AH. A patient with severe asthma exacerbation has not responded to inhaled beta-agonists and IV steroids. Which therapy is the next appropriate step?

35 / 124

AI. A patient presents with sudden left-sided weakness and arrives within 2 hours of symptom onset. CT scan shows no hemorrhage. What is the best treatment?

36 / 124

AJ. A patient with ischemic stroke develops right-sided weakness and expressive aphasia. CT shows no hemorrhage. What is the first-line secondary prevention therapy?

37 / 124

AK. A patient with acute kidney injury has potassium 6.8 mmol/L and ECG showing widened QRS complexes. Which medication should be given urgently to prevent fatal arrhythmias?

38 / 124

AL. A nurse feels distressed about providing treatment that conflicts with their ethical beliefs. What is the best step?

39 / 124

AM. A patient with acute pancreatitis develops hypocalcemia. Which clinical sign supports this finding?

40 / 124

AN. A patient with STEMI develops sustained ventricular tachycardia with hypotension. What is the immediate management?

41 / 124

AO. A nurse feels distressed about continuing aggressive care that does not align with the patient’s values. What is the best step?

42 / 124

AP. A patient with suspected gastrointestinal bleed has a positive fecal occult blood test but stable vital signs. What is the most appropriate next step?

43 / 124

AQ. A patient with peptic ulcer disease presents with hematemesis and hypotension. Which pharmacologic therapy is most appropriate?

44 / 124

AR. A patient with upper GI bleeding is stabilized after resuscitation. Which procedure is essential for diagnosis and management?

45 / 124

AS. A caregiver says, “I feel overwhelmed and don’t know how much longer I can continue.” What is the nurse’s best response?

46 / 124

AT. A patient with suspected upper GI bleeding has a hemoglobin of 6.9 g/dL and tachycardia. Which intervention is indicated?

47 / 124

AU. A patient with acute anaphylaxis (wheezing, hypotension, urticaria) is in the ED. Which treatment must be given first?

48 / 124

AV. A patient with suspected adrenal crisis presents with hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. What is the priority treatment?

49 / 124

AW. A nurse observes a colleague consistently arriving late and leaving tasks unfinished. What is the most appropriate response?

50 / 124

AX. A patient with ischemic stroke is not eligible for tPA. Which therapy reduces early recurrent stroke risk?

51 / 124

AY. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on mechanical ventilation. Which strategy is most important for improving survival?

52 / 124

AZ. A charge nurse must delegate tasks. Which assignment is appropriate for a nursing assistant?

53 / 124

BA. A patient with septic shock remains hypotensive despite fluids and norepinephrine. Which additional vasopressor is recommended next?

54 / 124

BB. A nurse observes a colleague skipping hand hygiene before entering a patient’s room. What is the most appropriate response?

55 / 124

BC. A patient with septic shock remains hypotensive despite fluids and norepinephrine. What additional therapy improves outcomes?

56 / 124

BD. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure presents with dyspnea, pulmonary rales, and edema. Which lab test best reflects fluid overload severity?

57 / 124

BE. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure presents with pulmonary edema. Which initial intervention is most appropriate?

58 / 124

BF. A patient with acute myocardial infarction suddenly develops pulseless ventricular tachycardia. What is the immediate priority intervention?

59 / 124

BG. A patient with severe pneumonia develops refractory hypoxemia despite high FiO₂. Chest X-ray shows bilateral infiltrates. What is the most likely condition?

60 / 124

BH. A patient with Addison’s disease is admitted for surgery. Which perioperative management is critical?

61 / 124

BI. A patient after traumatic brain injury has unequal pupils and a sudden drop in level of consciousness. What does this most likely indicate?

62 / 124

BJ. A nurse notices a coworker documenting an assessment that was never performed. What is the nurse’s best action?

63 / 124

BK. A patient with bacterial meningitis develops hypotension and tachycardia. What is the best immediate management?

64 / 124

BL. A patient with STEMI develops hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension. What is the most likely complication?

65 / 124

BM. A patient with an acute COPD exacerbation is hypoxemic. What oxygen strategy is most appropriate to avoid CO₂ narcosis while correcting hypoxemia?

66 / 124

BN. A patient with unstable angina reports chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin. What is the next most appropriate intervention?

67 / 124

BO. A patient with acute coronary syndrome develops bradycardia and hypotension. Which medication should be avoided?

68 / 124

BP. A patient with suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage has a normal head CT. What is the next diagnostic step?

69 / 124

BQ. A patient with ulcerative colitis presents with fever, tachycardia, and severe abdominal distension. X-ray shows colonic dilation >6 cm. What is the likely diagnosis?

70 / 124

BR. A patient with atrial fibrillation develops rapid ventricular response causing hypotension. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?

71 / 124

BS. A patient in septic shock has persistent hypotension despite fluid resuscitation and norepinephrine infusion. Which adjunctive therapy may be added?

72 / 124

BT. A charge nurse must delegate tasks. Which assignment is appropriate for a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?

73 / 124

BU. A patient develops new-onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response after cardiac surgery. Which drug is most appropriate for rate control?

74 / 124

BV. A patient with ischemic stroke arrives 2 hours after onset of symptoms. CT scan shows no hemorrhage. What is the appropriate intervention?

75 / 124

BW. A patient with severe acute pancreatitis develops increasing intra-abdominal pressure >25 mmHg with organ dysfunction. What is the most definitive treatment?

76 / 124

BX. During handoff, a nurse hears a colleague making sarcastic comments about a patient’s weight. What is the most appropriate response?

77 / 124

BY. In the ICU, which strategy has the strongest evidence to prevent and treat delirium?

78 / 124

BZ. During shift change, a nurse hears a colleague making disrespectful comments about a patient’s lifestyle choices. What is the most appropriate response?

79 / 124

CA. A patient with pulmonary embolism is started on heparin infusion. Which lab value should be closely monitored?

80 / 124

CB. A patient with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) arrives 30 minutes after symptom onset. The hospital has PCI capability. What is the preferred reperfusion strategy?

81 / 124

CC. A patient with atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin therapy. Which lab value is monitored to determine therapeutic range?

82 / 124

CD. A patient with suspected acute aortic dissection presents with tearing chest pain and BP 190/110 mmHg. What is the most appropriate immediate pharmacologic step?

83 / 124

CE. A high-risk patient is scheduled for contrast-enhanced CT. The best-proven strategy to prevent contrast-associated acute kidney injury is:

84 / 124

CF. A patient in septic shock on norepinephrine develops rising lactate levels and mottled skin. Which additional therapy may improve tissue perfusion?

85 / 124

CG. A mechanically ventilated patient acutely develops hypotension, tracheal deviation, and absent breath sounds on the right. What is the next action?

86 / 124

CH. A patient with community-acquired pneumonia is admitted with PaO₂ of 52 mmHg on room air. What is the initial management priority?

87 / 124

CI. A patient with advanced liver disease says, “I don’t want CPR if my heart stops.” What is the nurse’s best action?

88 / 124

CJ. A patient develops massive hemoptysis with airway compromise. What is the priority intervention?

89 / 124

CK. A nurse discovers that a patient’s allergy was not documented in the chart and the patient nearly received the allergen. What is the nurse’s best action?

90 / 124

CL. A patient with upper GI bleeding has hematemesis and hypotension. Which diagnostic procedure is the gold standard to identify and treat the bleeding source?

91 / 124

CM. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis presents with potassium 3.1 mmol/L. What is the next best step before starting insulin?

92 / 124

CN. A patient with acute myocardial infarction develops hypotension, clear lungs, and elevated jugular venous pressure. Which complication is most likely?

93 / 124

CO. A patient with acute pulmonary embolism is hypotensive and hypoxemic. What is the recommended immediate therapy?

94 / 124

CP. A patient with end-stage illness says, “I do not want any further life-prolonging treatments.” What is the nurse’s best action?

95 / 124

CQ. A patient with COPD exacerbation is on high-flow oxygen. ABG shows pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 72 mmHg. What is the best next step?

96 / 124

CR. A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with hyperkalemia (K⁺ 6.5 mmol/L) and peaked T waves on ECG. What is the immediate priority intervention?

97 / 124

CS. A patient with ARDS is on mechanical ventilation. Which ventilator strategy improves survival?

98 / 124

CT. A nurse notices a colleague not using gloves while drawing blood. What is the most appropriate action?

99 / 124

CU. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is admitted. Which intervention should be initiated first?

100 / 124

CV. A patient with acute pancreatitis presents with severe epigastric pain and hypotension. Which lab finding would most strongly support this diagnosis?

101 / 124

CW. A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops progressive weakness and difficulty clearing secretions. Which intervention is most urgent?

102 / 124

CX. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis presents with potassium 5.9 mmol/L before insulin infusion is started. What is the best management?

103 / 124

CY. A patient with suspected bowel perforation presents with severe abdominal pain, rigidity, and free air under the diaphragm on X-ray. What is the priority intervention?

104 / 124

CZ. A provider begins preparing to place a central line without verifying informed consent. What is the priority nursing action?

105 / 124

DA. A patient with myxedema coma presents with hypothermia, bradycardia, and hypotension. What is the most appropriate immediate therapy?

106 / 124

DB. A patient with acute ischemic stroke has blood pressure of 210/115 mmHg but is not a candidate for thrombolytic therapy. What is the best management?

107 / 124

DC. A patient with severe asthma is receiving continuous nebulized albuterol. The nurse notices tremors and a serum potassium of 2.9 mmol/L. What caused this electrolyte disturbance?

108 / 124

DD. A patient with spinal cord injury at C4 suddenly develops severe hypertension, bradycardia, and profuse sweating above the injury level. What condition is this?

109 / 124

DE. A patient with traumatic brain injury is receiving mannitol. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

110 / 124

DF. A patient in septic shock has a central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO₂) of 55% despite adequate fluids and norepinephrine. What is the next best step?

111 / 124

DG. A patient with COPD is admitted for acute exacerbation. ABG shows pH 7.36, PaCO₂ 58 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 32 mEq/L. How should this be interpreted?

112 / 124

DH. A trauma patient develops flail chest with paradoxical chest wall movement. Which intervention is most likely required?

113 / 124

DI. A patient with Guillain–Barré syndrome is admitted to the ICU. Which therapy improves outcomes by hastening recovery?

114 / 124

DJ. A postoperative patient develops sudden calf pain, swelling, and warmth. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to confirm the suspected condition?

115 / 124

DK. A patient with sepsis develops progressive hypotension despite fluids and vasopressors. Lactate remains elevated. What is the most likely underlying cause?

116 / 124

DL. A patient with suspected acute adrenal insufficiency presents with profound hypotension unresponsive to fluids. What is the priority treatment?

117 / 124

DM. A patient with severe asthma exacerbation has silent chest on auscultation and confusion. What is the next best step?

118 / 124

DN. A patient with suspected meningitis presents with fever, neck stiffness, and photophobia. Which intervention is most appropriate before lumbar puncture?

119 / 124

DO. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is receiving IV insulin infusion. Potassium level is 3.1 mmol/L. What is the priority action?

120 / 124

DP. A patient with suspected small bowel obstruction presents with abdominal distension, vomiting, and high-pitched bowel sounds. Which diagnostic imaging is most appropriate?

121 / 124

DQ. A patient with severe COPD exacerbation is on BiPAP but becomes increasingly somnolent with PaCO₂ 85 mmHg. What is the next step?

122 / 124

DR. A patient post–subarachnoid hemorrhage suddenly develops acute confusion and significantly increased urine output. Which complication is most likely?

123 / 124

DS. A patient with pneumonia is on antibiotics but develops progressive hypoxemia and bilateral crackles. Chest X-ray shows diffuse infiltrates. Which condition is suspected?

124 / 124

DT. A patient with acute renal failure has severe hyperkalemia (K⁺ 7.2 mmol/L, ECG: peaked T waves). After stabilizing the myocardium with IV calcium, what is the next therapy to rapidly lower serum potassium?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

Quiz Navigation