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FULL PRACTICE TEST 3
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1) 1. What penalties may result from violating the False Claims Act?
Oops! Revisit the relevant guidelines.
Correct! Well done.
Explanation: Violations of the False Claims Act can lead to significant civil penalties, including substantial fines, and may also result in criminal charges, including imprisonment.
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2) 2. Which type of vaccine uses killed pathogens?
Explanation: Inactivated vaccines are produced by killing the disease-causing pathogen with chemicals, heat, or radiation. These killed pathogens are incapable of causing disease but can still stimulate an immune response.
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3) 3. What is the correct compression-to-breath ratio for adults?
Explanation: For adult CPR, the standard compression-to-ventilation ratio for both one and two rescuers is 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths (30:2).
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4) 4. Which instrument is used to clamp blood vessels?
Explanation: A hemostat is a surgical instrument used to clamp and hold blood vessels to control bleeding during a procedure.
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5) 5. Which instrument is used to hold tissue during minor surgical procedures?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: Forceps are tweezer-like instruments designed to grasp, hold, or manipulate tissue securely during surgical procedures.
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6) 6. How many precordial (chest) leads are used in a standard ECG?
Explanation: A standard 12-lead ECG uses 6 precordial (chest) leads, labeled V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, and V6, which are placed on specific locations on the chest to record the heart’s electrical activity in the horizontal plane.
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7) 7. How many total leads are in a standard ECG?
Explanation: A standard ECG is called a 12-lead ECG because it records 12 different electrical views of the heart. This is accomplished using 10 electrodes, which create 3 limb leads, 3 augmented limb leads, and 6 precordial (chest) leads (3+3+6 = 12).
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8) 8. Which electrolyte imbalance is most dangerous for the heart?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) is particularly dangerous because it can interfere with the heart’s electrical conduction, leading to potentially fatal cardiac arrhythmias and cardiac arrest.
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9) 9. How should compressions be delivered?
Explanation: High-quality CPR requires pushing hard and fast (fast and deep) on the chest and allowing for full chest recoil between compressions. Recoil allows the heart to refill with blood, which is crucial for effective circulation.
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10) 10. Which mineral is essential for strong bones and teeth?
Explanation: Calcium is the most abundant mineral in the body and is a major structural component of bones and teeth, providing them with strength and density.
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11) 11. Who determines the scope of practice for medical assistants?
Explanation: The scope of practice for medical assistants, which defines the duties they are legally allowed to perform, is determined by the laws and regulations of the specific state in which they work.
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12) 12. Which document summarizes balances of all accounts to check accuracy?
Explanation: A trial balance is an accounting report that lists the balances of all general ledger accounts at a certain point in time. Its primary purpose is to verify that the total of all debit balances equals the total of all credit balances, ensuring the mathematical accuracy of the ledger.
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13) 13. What should be worn during a surgical procedure?
Explanation: Surgical procedures require maximum protection to maintain sterility and protect the healthcare worker. This includes full Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), specifically a sterile gown and sterile gloves, in addition to a mask and eye protection.
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14) 14. Which part of the brain is responsible for balance and coordination?
Explanation: The cerebellum, located at the back of the brain, is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, posture, balance, coordination, and speech, resulting in smooth and balanced muscular activity.
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15) 15. Which device measures oxygen saturation at home?
Explanation: A pulse oximeter is a small, non-invasive device that clips onto a fingertip or earlobe to measure the oxygen saturation level in the blood (SpO2). It is commonly used for at-home monitoring.
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16) 16. Which medical specialist treats disorders of the nervous system?
Explanation: A neurologist is a medical doctor who specializes in the diagnosis, treatment, and management of disorders affecting the brain, spinal cord, nerves, and muscles.
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17) 17. Which POCT is used for rapid detection of influenza?
Explanation: Rapid influenza diagnostic tests (RIDTs) are point-of-care tests (POCT) that detect influenza viral antigens in a respiratory specimen, typically collected via a nasal or throat swab. They provide results quickly, usually within 15-30 minutes.
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18) 18. What is one barrier to effective communication in the workplace?
Explanation: Environmental noise and frequent distractions can significantly impair effective communication by making it difficult to hear, reducing concentration, and leading to misunderstandings or missed information.
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19) 19. Which vaccine prevents polio?
Explanation: Polio is prevented by the poliovirus vaccine. There are two types: the Inactivated Poliovirus Vaccine (IPV), given by injection, and the Oral Poliovirus Vaccine (OPV), which is no longer routinely used in many countries like the U.S.
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20) 20. Which test evaluates lung function and capacity?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: Spirometry is a common pulmonary function test that measures how much air a person can inhale and exhale, and how quickly they can exhale it. It is used to diagnose and monitor conditions like asthma and COPD.
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21) 21. What is a maintenance dose?
Explanation: A maintenance dose is the dose of a drug given to maintain a steady concentration of the drug in the blood plasma (steady-state) within the therapeutic window, ensuring continued therapeutic effect.
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22) 22. Which type of pathogen causes athlete’s foot?
Explanation: Athlete’s foot (tinea pedis) is a common skin infection caused by a type of fungus called a dermatophyte, which thrives in warm, moist environments.
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23) 23. Which type of seizure involves loss of consciousness and convulsions?
Explanation: A tonic-clonic seizure (formerly known as a grand mal seizure) is a type of generalized seizure that involves a loss of consciousness and violent muscle contractions (convulsions).
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24) 24. A child weighs 25 kg. Order: 5 mg/kg. How many mg total?
Explanation: To calculate the total dose, multiply the child’s weight in kilograms (kg) by the ordered dose in milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg). Calculation: 25 kg × 5 mg/kg = 125 mg.
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25) 25. Which tool is helpful for managing appointments and tasks?
Explanation: Electronic calendars and specialized scheduling software are essential tools for efficiently managing appointments and tasks. They provide organization, reminders, and easy access to schedules, improving time management.
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26) 26. Which is the best first aid action for a patient experiencing a seizure?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: The main priority during a seizure is to ensure the patient’s safety. This involves clearing the area of any hard or sharp objects to prevent injury. One should never restrain the patient or place objects in their mouth.
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27) 27. Which coding system includes supplies, durable medical equipment, and non-physician services?
Explanation: The Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) Level II is used to report services, supplies, and equipment not covered by CPT codes, such as ambulance services, durable medical equipment (DME), and prosthetics.
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28) 28. What does the abbreviation “PRN” mean in medication orders?
Explanation: “PRN” is an abbreviation from the Latin phrase “pro re nata,” which translates to “as the thing is needed.” In a medication order, it means the medication should be administered as needed by the patient, not on a fixed schedule.
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29) 29. Which is NOT a principle of sterile technique?
Explanation: A fundamental principle of sterile technique is that sterile objects or surfaces can only touch other sterile objects or surfaces. If a sterile glove touches a non-sterile surface, the glove is considered contaminated and must be changed.
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30) 30. Which glands are responsible for producing sweat?
Explanation: Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are exocrine glands located in the skin that secrete sweat. This process, known as perspiration, is essential for regulating body temperature (thermoregulation).
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31) 31. What is informed consent?
Explanation: Informed consent is a process where a healthcare provider educates a patient about the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a given procedure or intervention. The patient must demonstrate understanding and voluntarily agree to the treatment for the consent to be valid.
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32) 32. Which of the following is an example of a bloodborne pathogen?
Explanation: A bloodborne pathogen is a microorganism that is present in human blood and can cause disease. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is a classic example, as it is transmitted through contact with infected blood and certain body fluids.
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33) 33. What is the main purpose of the income statement?
Explanation: An income statement, also known as a profit and loss (P&L) statement, shows a company’s financial performance over a specific period. Its main purpose is to display revenues and expenses to calculate the net income or loss.
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34) 34. Which solution is commonly used to clean skin before minor surgery?
Explanation: Povidone-iodine is a broad-spectrum antiseptic that is commonly used for skin preparation before surgery to reduce the number of microorganisms on the skin and prevent surgical site infections.
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35) 35. Which organ produces bile to aid in fat digestion?
Explanation: The liver produces bile, a substance that is then stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. Bile is released into the small intestine to emulsify fats, breaking them down into smaller droplets for easier digestion and absorption.
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36) 36. Which mineral is most important for bone health?
Explanation: Calcium is the primary mineral responsible for building and maintaining strong bones and teeth. The body continuously removes and replaces small amounts of calcium from bones in a process called bone remodeling.
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37) 37. What is the sterile zone of the surgical gown?
Explanation: On a surgical gown, the area considered sterile is the front of the gown from the chest to the level of the sterile field (waist level), and the sleeves from the cuffs to two inches above the elbow.
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38) 38. Informed consent is an example of which ethical principle?
Explanation: The process of obtaining informed consent upholds the ethical principle of autonomy. Autonomy respects the patient’s right to self-determination and to make their own independent decisions about their healthcare.
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39) 39. Which term describes a fast heart rate above 100 bpm?
Explanation: Tachycardia is the medical term for a heart rate that exceeds the normal resting rate, which in an adult is generally defined as being over 100 beats per minute (bpm).
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40) 40. What does the prefix “brady-” mean?
Explanation: The prefix “brady-” is derived from Greek and means “slow.” It is used in medical terms such as bradycardia (a slow heart rate) and bradypnea (abnormally slow breathing).
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41) 41. Which federal agency categorizes tests as waived, moderate, or high complexity?
Explanation: Under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA), the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for reviewing and categorizing laboratory tests based on their complexity (waived, moderate, or high).
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42) 42. Which tool is used to measure weight?
Explanation: A scale is the standard medical instrument used to measure a patient’s body weight, which is a key component of vital signs and health assessment.
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43) 43. Which disinfectant is commonly used for skin antisepsis before injection?
Explanation: Chlorhexidine is a widely used skin antiseptic that is effective against a broad range of microorganisms. It is often used as an alternative to alcohol or iodine for skin preparation before injections or surgical procedures.
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44) 44. Which part of the medical record includes family history?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: The patient’s family medical history is a critical component of their overall health history. It is typically documented on the health history form as part of the initial patient workup and updated as needed.
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45) 45. What does “clean claim” mean in the insurance process?
Explanation: A “clean claim” is a health insurance claim that is submitted with all necessary and correct information, free of errors. Clean claims can be processed by the payer without requiring additional information, which prevents delays and denials.
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46) 46. The Good Samaritan Law is designed to:
(Pre Test ) Explanation: Good Samaritan laws are in place to offer legal protection to people who give reasonable assistance to those who are, or who they believe to be, injured, ill, in peril, or otherwise incapacitated. This encourages bystanders to help in emergencies without fear of being sued for unintentional injury or death.
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47) 47. What is applied after suture removal?
Explanation: After sutures are removed, applying a sterile dressing or adhesive strips (like Steri-Strips) can help protect the newly healed wound from contamination and provide support to the incision line, reducing the risk of dehiscence (reopening).
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48) 48. Which PPE is essential when there is risk of splashing blood or body fluids?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: When there is a risk of splashing blood or body fluids, full Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is required to protect all potential routes of exposure. This includes gloves for the hands, a gown for skin and clothing, and a mask plus eye protection (goggles or face shield) for the mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, and eyes.
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49) 49. According to HIPAA, who is allowed to access a patient’s health record?
Explanation: HIPAA’s Privacy Rule states that access to Protected Health Information (PHI) should be limited to a “minimum necessary” standard. This means that only healthcare providers and staff who are directly involved in the patient’s care have a legitimate need to access their records.
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50) 50. Which procedure is used to stop bleeding by applying pressure to a blood vessel?
Explanation: Hemostasis is the physiological process that stops bleeding. While it involves a complex cascade of events (vasoconstriction, platelet plug formation, coagulation), the term broadly refers to the procedures and techniques used to control bleeding, such as applying pressure.
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51) 51. Where should a tourniquet be applied?
Explanation: For life-threatening extremity bleeding, a tourniquet should be applied proximal to the wound (closer to the torso), about 2-3 inches above the injury. It should never be placed directly over a joint or the wound itself.
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52) 52. Which connective tissue cushions the ends of bones at joints?
Explanation: Cartilage is a smooth, resilient connective tissue that covers the ends of bones within a joint. This articular cartilage reduces friction and acts as a shock absorber, allowing the joint to move smoothly.
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53) 53. Which process in the nephron returns water and useful substances back into the bloodstream?
Explanation: Tubular reabsorption is the process by which the nephron removes water and solutes from the tubular fluid and returns them to the circulating blood. This conserves essential substances like glucose, amino acids, and water.
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54) 54. What is the recovery position used for?
Explanation: The recovery position is used for an unconscious person who is still breathing and has a pulse. Placing them on their side helps keep their airway clear and open, and prevents them from choking on vomit or saliva (aspiration).
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55) 55. Which nutrient helps absorb fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K)?
Explanation: Dietary fats are essential for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K). These vitamins dissolve in fat and are absorbed from the small intestine along with dietary fats.
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56) 56. What color tube is used for CBC test?
Explanation: The lavender (or purple) top tube contains the anticoagulant EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid), which is used for most hematology tests, including the Complete Blood Count (CBC), because it preserves the morphology of blood cells.
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57) 57. Which report helps track overdue patient balances?
Explanation: An accounts receivable (A/R) aging report is a critical financial document that categorizes unpaid patient balances by the length of time they have been outstanding (e.g., 0-30 days, 31-60 days). This helps staff prioritize collection efforts on overdue accounts.
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58) 58. Which law is designed to prevent overutilization of services due to physician self-referral?
Explanation: The Stark Law prohibits physicians from referring Medicare or Medicaid patients to entities for designated health services in which the physician (or an immediate family member) has a financial interest. This is to prevent self-referrals driven by financial gain rather than patient need.
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59) 59. What is the recommended response if a patient collapses and is unresponsive?
Explanation: In a medical emergency where a patient is unresponsive, the immediate steps are to call for help (activate the emergency response system) and then check for breathing and a pulse. If there is no pulse or breathing, high-quality CPR should be initiated immediately.
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60) 60. If services billed are not covered under the patient’s plan, the claim will likely be:
Explanation: Insurance companies will only pay for services that are listed as covered benefits under a patient’s specific health plan. If a service is not a covered benefit, the claim for that service will be denied, and the financial responsibility typically falls to the patient.
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61) 61. The physician orders 0.75 g. Available: 250 mg tablets. How many tablets?
Explanation: First, convert grams (g) to milligrams (mg): 0.75 g = 750 mg. Next, divide the ordered dose by the available dose per tablet: 750 mg / 250 mg/tablet = 3 tablets.
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62) 62. Crossing arms tightly during conversation often suggests:
Explanation: In the context of body language, crossing one’s arms is often interpreted as a closed or defensive posture. It can suggest that the person is feeling resistant, uncomfortable, or disagreeable with what is being said.
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63) 63. Which feature of EHRs reduces prescription errors?
Explanation: Electronic prescribing (e-prescribing) is a feature of Electronic Health Records (EHRs) that allows providers to send prescriptions directly to a pharmacy’s computer system. This eliminates errors caused by illegible handwriting and can provide alerts for potential drug interactions or allergies.
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64) 64. What is one advantage of using computerized appointment scheduling?
Explanation: Computerized scheduling systems can prevent common manual errors, such as accidentally booking two patients for the same time slot (double-booking). This improves office efficiency and patient flow.
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65) 65. What is the proper action if sterility is broken during setup?
Explanation: A core principle of sterile technique is that sterility must be maintained at all times. If any item is suspected or known to be contaminated, it must be removed from the sterile field and replaced immediately to prevent patient infection.
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66) 66. Which position should the patient be in for height measurement?
Explanation: For an accurate height measurement, the patient should be standing upright with their back against the stadiometer, looking straight ahead, with their heels together and flat on the floor.
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67) 67. Which term refers to microorganisms that normally live in and on the human body without causing disease?
Explanation: Normal flora (also called microbiome or commensal bacteria) are the vast community of microorganisms that live in and on the human body. They are typically harmless and often beneficial, aiding in digestion and protecting against pathogenic organisms.
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68) 68. What does a Holter monitor record?
Explanation: A Holter monitor is a portable device that continuously records the heart’s electrical activity (ECG) for 24 to 48 hours or longer. It is used to detect and diagnose cardiac arrhythmias that may not be apparent during a standard, short-term ECG in the office.
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69) 69. Payments made to suppliers for medical supplies are classified as:
Explanation: Accounts payable represents the money a business owes to its suppliers or vendors for goods and services received but not yet paid for. Payments for medical supplies fall into this category.
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70) 70. Which POCT is used to detect cardiac injury?
Explanation: Troponin is a protein released into the blood when the heart muscle is damaged, such as during a myocardial infarction (heart attack). A rapid troponin point-of-care test (POCT) can quickly detect elevated levels, aiding in the rapid diagnosis of cardiac injury.
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71) 71. What should be done if a sterile package becomes wet?
Explanation: If a sterile package becomes wet, the moisture can act as a wick, drawing microorganisms from a non-sterile surface through the packaging material. Therefore, a wet package is always considered contaminated and should not be used.
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72) 72. How soon should urine specimens be delivered to the lab?
Explanation: Urine specimens should be tested or delivered to the laboratory as soon as possible, ideally within one hour of collection. Delays can lead to bacterial overgrowth and changes in the chemical and cellular components of the urine, resulting in inaccurate results.
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73) 73. Which angle should the needle be inserted for venipuncture?
Explanation: For routine venipuncture, the needle should be inserted into the skin at a shallow angle, between 15 and 30 degrees. This angle ensures proper entry into the vein without passing through it, minimizing trauma.
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74) 74. Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: Nonverbal communication is the transmission of messages or signals through a nonverbal platform such as eye contact, facial expressions, gestures, posture, and body language. Written instructions and spoken explanations are forms of verbal communication.
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75) 75. Which type of shock occurs due to heart failure?
Explanation: Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart is damaged and unable to pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. It is most often caused by a severe heart attack (myocardial infarction) but can also result from other conditions that cause heart failure.
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76) 76. Which gas is primarily expelled from the lungs during exhalation?
Explanation: Cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide (CO2) as a waste product. The blood transports this CO2 to the lungs, where it is removed from the body during exhalation.
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77) 77. What is the purpose of a medical record?
Explanation: The primary purpose of a medical record is to provide a comprehensive and accurate account of a patient’s medical history and the care they have received. It serves as a tool for communication among providers, a legal document, and a basis for billing.
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78) 78. What is used to create a sterile field?
Explanation: Sterile drapes are specially prepared cloths that are free from microorganisms. They are used to cover the patient, equipment, or surfaces to create a sterile field, which is a designated area where sterile procedures can be performed without risk of contamination.
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79) 79. Which is the first step in basic wound care?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: The first step in caring for a minor wound is to cleanse it thoroughly with mild soap and water or a saline solution. This helps to remove dirt, debris, and bacteria, which is crucial for reducing the risk of infection.
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80) 80. Which type of insurance is provided by employers as a benefit to employees?
Explanation: Group health insurance is a type of health insurance plan offered by an employer or an organization to its members or employees. The employer typically covers a portion of the premium costs as a benefit of employment.
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81) 81. Which is the correct order for infection control?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: The levels of infection control proceed from least to most thorough. Sanitization is basic cleaning to remove visible debris. Disinfection kills most pathogenic microorganisms but not spores. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all microbial life, including spores.
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82) 82. Which situation would violate Stark Law?
Explanation: The Stark Law is a federal law that prohibits physician self-referral. A physician referring a Medicare or Medicaid patient to a laboratory in which the physician has a financial ownership interest is a classic violation, as it creates a conflict of interest.
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83) 83. Which route provides the fastest absorption?
Explanation: The intravenous (IV) route provides the fastest absorption because it delivers the medication directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the barriers of absorption in the gastrointestinal tract or muscle tissue. This results in 100% bioavailability almost instantly.
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84) 84. Why does OSHA require Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in medical offices?
Explanation: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires PPE to protect healthcare workers from exposure to workplace hazards. This includes biological hazards like bloodborne pathogens and chemical hazards from disinfectants or lab reagents.
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85) 85. What is the correct hand placement for adult chest compressions?
Explanation: For effective adult CPR, the heel of one hand should be placed on the center of the chest, over the lower half of the sternum (breastbone). The other hand is placed on top. This placement ensures that pressure is applied directly over the heart.
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86) 86. Which position is used for perineal and rectal procedures?
Explanation: The knee-chest position, where the patient kneels on the exam table and rests their chest on the table, is used for some rectal and perineal examinations as it provides good visualization of the area. However, Sims’ position is more common for rectal exams. Given the options, knee-chest is the best fit for procedures in this region.
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87) 87. What is the main goal of PPE use?
Explanation: The primary goal of using Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is to create a barrier between the healthcare worker and potentially infectious materials, thereby protecting both staff and patients from cross-contamination and infection.
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88) 88. Why is it important to verify patient demographics at every visit?
Explanation: Verifying patient demographics (name, date of birth, address, insurance information) at every visit is crucial to ensure patient identification is correct, prevent medical errors, and maintain accurate records for billing and clinical purposes. Information can change, and this check prevents claim denials and communication errors.
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89) 89. Which non-invasive test measures blood flow in arteries and veins using sound waves?
Explanation: A Doppler ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging test that uses high-frequency sound waves to measure the amount of blood flow through arteries and veins. It is commonly used to detect blood clots, vascular blockages, or poor circulation.
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90) 90. Which of the following improves efficiency in handling large volumes of incoming calls?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: A telephone triage system, often managed by an automated attendant or a dedicated staff member, helps improve efficiency by appropriately routing calls to the correct department or person (e.g., billing, appointments, nurse line). This reduces wait times and ensures callers reach the right resource quickly.
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91) 91. Which principle requires healthcare providers to avoid causing harm to patients?
Explanation: Nonmaleficence is the core ethical principle of “do no harm.” It obligates healthcare providers to avoid any action that could cause unnecessary harm to a patient.
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92) 92. Which procedure is used to remove fluid from the chest cavity?
Explanation: A thoracentesis is a procedure in which a needle is inserted into the pleural space between the lungs and the chest wall to remove excess fluid (pleural effusion) for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.
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93) 93. Duplicate claim submission results in:
Explanation: Submitting the same claim more than once for the same service is known as duplicate billing. Insurance payer systems are designed to detect this and will typically deny the duplicate claim to prevent paying for the same service twice.
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94) 94. What is the universal sign of choking?
Explanation: The universal sign of choking is when a person instinctively grabs their throat with one or both hands. This gesture signals an airway obstruction and the inability to breathe or speak.
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95) 95. A petty cash log should always include:
(Pre Test ) Explanation: For proper accountability and financial tracking, a petty cash log must be maintained. Every time money is disbursed, a corresponding receipt or voucher for the expenditure must be collected and recorded in the log.
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96) 96. What position is recommended for a patient in shock?
Explanation: For most types of shock, the recommended position is to have the patient lie flat on their back with their legs elevated about 8-12 inches. This helps to promote venous return to the heart and improve blood flow to vital organs.
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97) 97. Which type of suture material is absorbed by the body?
Explanation: Catgut is an example of an absorbable suture material. It is made from the intestines of sheep or cattle and is gradually broken down and absorbed by the body’s enzymes over time, so it does not require removal.
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98) 98. Which waste is disposed of in black bags?
Explanation: In healthcare settings, waste is segregated. Black bags are typically used for general, non-infectious, non-hazardous waste, similar to regular household trash. Infectious waste goes in red or biohazard bags.
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99) 99. What should be documented after suture removal?
Explanation: Comprehensive documentation is crucial for legal and medical accuracy. After suture removal, the record should include the number of sutures removed, the appearance of the wound (e.g., well-approximated, no signs of infection), and the patient’s response or tolerance of the procedure.
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100) 100. Which structure produces sperm in the male reproductive system?
Explanation: The testes (singular: testis) are the primary male reproductive organs responsible for producing sperm (spermatogenesis) and synthesizing androgens, primarily testosterone.
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101) 101. What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
Explanation: Naloxone (brand name Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of an opioid overdose, particularly life-threatening respiratory depression.
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102) 102. What is half-life of a drug?
Explanation: The half-life (t½) of a drug is the time it takes for the concentration of the drug in the plasma or the total amount in the body to be reduced by 50%. It is a key pharmacokinetic parameter that helps determine dosing intervals.
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103) 103. Which is an example of review of systems (ROS)?
Explanation: The review of systems (ROS) is an inventory of the body systems obtained through a series of questions seeking to identify signs and/or symptoms which the patient may be experiencing. Inquiring about headaches (neurological), chest pain (cardiovascular), and nausea (gastrointestinal) is a classic example.
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104) 104. What should you do in case of a bomb threat?
Explanation: In the event of a bomb threat received by phone, the protocol is to remain calm, keep the caller on the line as long as possible, gather information using a checklist if available (e.g., background noises, caller’s voice), and notify authorities and facility security immediately.
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105) 105. Which route delivers medication applied to the skin surface?
Explanation: The topical route of administration involves applying a medication directly to a body surface, such as the skin or mucous membranes, for local effect.
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106) 106. Which microorganism is responsible for causing athlete’s foot?
Explanation: Athlete’s foot (tinea pedis) is a contagious fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by a type of fungus called a dermatophyte, such as Trichophyton.
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107) 107. Why is patient privacy important?
Explanation: Patient privacy is a cornerstone of medical ethics and law (HIPAA). Ensuring privacy during examinations and consultations respects the patient’s dignity and builds trust, which is essential for an effective and honest patient-provider relationship.
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108) 108. Which tool is used to measure height?
Explanation: A stadiometer is a piece of medical equipment used for measuring human height. It typically consists of a ruler and a sliding horizontal headpiece which is adjusted to rest on the top of the head.
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109) 109. What is the maximum safe time for tourniquet use?
Explanation: This question likely refers to emergency/trauma tourniquet use for hemorrhage control, not routine phlebotomy (which is <1 minute). In trauma settings, while there's a risk of tissue damage, a tourniquet can be left in place for up to 2 hours before the risk of permanent nerve or muscle damage becomes high. It is a life-saving measure where limb loss is an accepted risk.
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110) 110. What does “NPO” mean in medical terminology?
Explanation: NPO is a medical abbreviation for the Latin phrase “nil per os,” which translates to “nothing by mouth.” It is an order instructing that the patient should not eat or drink anything.
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111) 111. Which insurance covers employees who are injured or become ill due to job-related conditions?
Explanation: Workers’ Compensation is a form of insurance providing wage replacement and medical benefits to employees injured in the course of employment in exchange for mandatory relinquishment of the employee’s right to sue their employer for negligence.
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112) 112. The doctor orders 1.2 g. Available: 400 mg tablets. How many tablets?
Explanation: First, convert grams (g) to milligrams (mg): 1.2 g = 1200 mg. Next, divide the ordered dose by the available dose per tablet: 1200 mg / 400 mg/tablet = 3 tablets.
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113) 113. Which color tube is used for CBC?
Explanation: The lavender (or purple) top tube contains the anticoagulant EDTA and is used for most hematology tests, most importantly the Complete Blood Count (CBC), because it preserves blood cell integrity.
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114) 114. Which sound is expected when percussing over the liver?
Explanation: Percussion over a solid organ like the liver produces a dull sound. Resonant sounds are heard over air-filled lungs, and tympanic sounds are heard over air-filled structures like the stomach.
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115) 115. Why is feedback important in staff communication?
Explanation: Feedback is a vital component of effective communication and management. It clarifies performance expectations, provides direction for improvement, reinforces positive behaviors, and helps ensure that staff members understand their roles and responsibilities.
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116) 116. What is the normal pacemaker of the heart?
Explanation: The sinoatrial (SA) node, located in the right atrium, is the heart’s natural pacemaker. It generates electrical impulses that travel through the heart, causing it to contract and pump blood.
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117) 117. Which type of vaccine contains weakened pathogens?
Explanation: A live attenuated vaccine contains a version of the living virus or bacteria that has been weakened (attenuated) in the lab so it can no longer cause disease. It mimics a natural infection and typically provides long-lasting immunity.
118 / 200
118) 118. Which color tube is used for coagulation studies?
Explanation: The light blue top tube contains the anticoagulant sodium citrate. It is specifically used for coagulation tests like PT (Prothrombin Time) and aPTT because the anticoagulant effect is reversible, allowing the clotting cascade to be studied in the lab.
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119) 119. Which clinical procedure collects cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Explanation: A lumbar puncture (also known as a spinal tap) is the procedure used to collect a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the spinal canal in the lower back for diagnostic testing.
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120) 120. Which practice helps protect patient data on computers?
Explanation: Regularly updating software and operating systems is a critical cybersecurity practice. These updates often contain patches for security vulnerabilities that could otherwise be exploited by attackers to access sensitive patient data.
121 / 200
121) 121. What is the role of nonverbal communication in staff interactions?
Explanation: Nonverbal communication—such as body language, tone of voice, and facial expressions—is a powerful component of interaction. It can either reinforce and support a spoken message, making it clearer, or contradict it, causing confusion and mistrust.
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122) 122. Which type of pathogen causes tuberculosis?
Explanation: Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It primarily affects the lungs but can affect other parts of the body as well.
123 / 200
123) 123. What does the suffix “-algia” mean?
Explanation: The suffix “-algia” comes from the Greek word for pain. It is used in medical terms to denote pain in a specific part of the body, such as neuralgia (nerve pain) or myalgia (muscle pain).
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124) 124. Which vaccine protects against chickenpox?
Explanation: The varicella vaccine protects against chickenpox, which is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It is a routine childhood immunization.
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125) 125. Which type of pathogen causes malaria?
Explanation: Malaria is a life-threatening disease caused by parasites of the Plasmodium genus. It is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
126 / 200
126) 126. What is the first step if you encounter a violent patient?
Explanation: When encountering a violent or potentially violent patient, the first priority is personal and environmental safety. One should remain calm, maintain a safe distance, call for help (security or other staff), and focus on de-escalation without putting oneself at risk.
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127) 127. When removing sutures, how should they be taken out?
Explanation: Sutures should be removed gently, one at a time, to minimize trauma to the healing tissue and avoid discomfort for the patient. Pulling quickly or removing all at once can damage the wound.
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128) 128. In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which comes first?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: According to Maslow’s hierarchy, the most basic needs must be met before individuals can attend to higher needs. Physiological needs—including air, food, water, shelter, and warmth—are the most fundamental and must be satisfied first.
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129) 129. Why should exam supplies be prepared in advance?
Explanation: Preparing all necessary supplies before the patient enters the exam room ensures that the examination can proceed smoothly and efficiently. This reduces delays, shows professionalism, and allows the provider to focus entirely on the patient.
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130) 130. How should compressions be delivered?
Explanation: This question is a duplicate of Q9. High-quality CPR requires pushing hard and fast on the chest (at a rate of 100-120/min and a depth of at least 2 inches for adults) and allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions to let the heart refill with blood.
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131) 131. Which gland produces adrenaline (epinephrine) during stress responses?
Explanation: The adrenal glands, specifically the inner part called the adrenal medulla, produce adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine). These hormones are released during stress, triggering the “fight or flight” response.
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132) 132. Which step can be taken before sending an account to collections?
Explanation: Before resorting to a third-party collection agency, which can be costly and damage the patient relationship, it is a best practice to first offer the patient flexible payment options, such as an installment plan. This shows goodwill and often results in successful payment.
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133) 133. What does “chief complaint” mean?
Explanation: The chief complaint (CC) is a concise statement, in the patient’s own words, that describes the primary reason for their medical visit. It is a fundamental part of the medical history.
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134) 134. Which type of transmission occurs through coughing, sneezing, or talking?
Explanation: Droplet transmission occurs when respiratory droplets carrying infectious pathogens are expelled from an infected person during coughing, sneezing, or talking and are inhaled or land on the mucous membranes of a nearby person. These droplets are large and do not travel long distances.
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135) 135. What does a “loading dose” mean?
Explanation: A loading dose is an initial, larger-than-normal dose of a drug administered at the beginning of treatment. Its purpose is to rapidly achieve the desired therapeutic concentration in the body, which is then maintained by subsequent smaller, regular doses (maintenance doses).
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136) 136. Which factor reduces the effectiveness of disinfectants?
Explanation: The presence of organic matter, such as blood, soil, or other bodily fluids, can inactivate or reduce the effectiveness of many chemical disinfectants. Therefore, surfaces must be cleaned to remove organic matter before disinfection can occur.
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137) 137. What is the ideal time to check blood pressure at home?
Explanation: For accurate and consistent home blood pressure monitoring, it is recommended to take readings at the same time each day, such as in the morning before taking medication and eating, and again in the evening. Consistency is key to tracking trends.
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138) 138. What should be done if an AED is available?
Explanation: As soon as an Automated External Defibrillator (AED) is available at the scene of a cardiac arrest, it should be turned on. The user should then attach the pads to the patient’s chest and follow the voice and visual prompts provided by the device.
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139) 139. What is the first step in responding to a fire in the medical office?
Explanation: In a fire emergency, the first priority is to ensure everyone is alerted to the danger. Activating the fire alarm immediately notifies all occupants of the building and often automatically alerts the fire department, initiating the emergency response.
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140) 140. Which behavior reflects stereotyping rather than cultural sensitivity?
Explanation: Stereotyping is over-generalizing and believing that all members of a particular group share the same characteristics or behaviors. This is the opposite of cultural sensitivity, which involves recognizing and respecting individual differences within a cultural group.
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141) 141. Which vaccine is mandatory for healthcare workers to protect against bloodborne infections?
Explanation: Due to the risk of occupational exposure to blood and body fluids, OSHA requires employers to offer the Hepatitis B vaccine to healthcare workers at no cost. It is a critical measure to protect against infection with this common bloodborne pathogen.
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142) 142. Which sound is expected when percussing over bone?
Explanation: Percussing over a very dense structure like bone produces a flat sound, which is high-pitched and very short in duration. This is in contrast to the dull sound over an organ like the liver or the resonant sound over lungs.
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143) 143. Which precaution applies to sharps disposal?
Explanation: To prevent needlestick injuries, all sharps (needles, scalpels, etc.) must be disposed of immediately after use in a designated, rigid, puncture-resistant, and leak-proof container. Needles should never be recapped, bent, or broken.
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144) 144. Which route is used for inhalers?
Explanation: Inhalers deliver medication via the inhalation route. The medication is breathed in as an aerosol or powder, delivering it directly to the respiratory tract and lungs for rapid local or systemic effect.
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145) 145. Which route is used for rectal suppositories?
Explanation: Rectal suppositories are administered via the rectal route. The medication is absorbed through the mucous membranes of the rectum for either local effect (e.g., laxatives) or systemic effect (e.g., anti-nausea medication).
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146) 146. Which system organizes patient records by problems, each with its own notes and care plan?
Explanation: The Problem-Oriented Medical Record (POMR) is a method of documentation that organizes patient data by diagnosis or problem. Each problem has its own section containing subjective (S), objective (O), assessment (A), and plan (P) notes, improving clarity and continuity of care.
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147) 147. Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in muscle contraction?
Explanation: Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter released by motor neurons at the neuromuscular junction. It binds to receptors on the muscle fiber, triggering a series of events that lead to muscle contraction.
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148) 148. Which type of pathogen causes influenza?
Explanation: Influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a contagious respiratory illness caused by influenza viruses. There are several types and subtypes of influenza viruses that can infect humans.
149 / 200
149) 149. What is the first step in using an AED (Automated External Defibrillator)?
Explanation: The first and most critical step in using any AED is to turn the power on. Once activated, the device will provide clear voice and/or visual prompts to guide the user through the next steps, including pad placement and shock delivery.
150 / 200
150) 150. What is the antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) overdose?
Explanation: N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing the body’s supply of glutathione, which helps to neutralize the toxic metabolite of acetaminophen and prevent severe liver damage.
151 / 200
151) 151. Which lab test is commonly ordered to check kidney function?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: The Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) test measures the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood. Urea is a waste product formed in the liver and excreted by the kidneys. Elevated BUN levels can indicate that the kidneys are not functioning properly.
152 / 200
152) 152. Which tube is used for hematology tests like complete blood count (CBC)?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: The lavender top tube contains the anticoagulant EDTA, which is ideal for hematology tests like the CBC because it prevents the blood from clotting while preserving the shape and size of the blood cells for accurate analysis.
153 / 200
153) 153. What is the normal pacemaker of the heart?
Explanation: The sinoatrial (SA) node, located in the wall of the right atrium, is the heart’s natural pacemaker. It spontaneously generates electrical impulses at the fastest rate, setting the normal rhythm of the heart.
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154) 154. Which of the following is an appropriate petty cash expense?
Explanation: A petty cash fund is used for small, incidental office expenses that are inconvenient to pay by check. Office postage stamps are a perfect example. Large, recurring expenses like rent or utility bills should be paid by check.
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155) 155. Which system groups inpatient services for Medicare reimbursement?
Explanation: Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs) are a patient classification system used by Medicare and other third-party payers to group inpatient hospital services for the purpose of reimbursement. Hospitals are paid a fixed rate per discharge based on the patient’s DRG.
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156) 156. What is the postictal phase?
Explanation: The postictal phase is the period immediately following a seizure. It is characterized by altered consciousness, confusion, drowsiness, fatigue, headache, and other neurological symptoms as the brain recovers.
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157) 157. What type of system is typically used for petty cash management?
Explanation: The imprest system is a common accounting method for managing petty cash. A fixed amount of cash is established in the fund, and as money is spent, it is replenished to the original fixed amount, with the replenishment amount equaling the value of the receipts collected.
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158) 158. Which defense mechanism occurs when a person reverts to an earlier developmental stage?
Explanation: Regression is a psychological defense mechanism where an individual copes with stress or anxiety by reverting to behavior patterns characteristic of an earlier, less mature stage of development.
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159) 159. Which nonverbal behavior communicates empathy and support?
Explanation: Sitting at the patient’s eye level, rather than standing over them, helps to reduce any perceived power imbalance. This simple act can make the patient feel more comfortable and respected, thereby communicating empathy and support.
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160) 160. Which developmental stage is characterized by identity vs. role confusion?
Explanation: According to Erik Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development, the “identity vs. role confusion” conflict is the central crisis of adolescence (approximately ages 12-18). During this stage, teenagers explore their independence and develop a sense of self.
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161) 161. Which of the following is the best practice to protect electronic health records?
Explanation: A fundamental security practice is to always log off or lock the computer when leaving it unattended, even for a moment. This prevents unauthorized individuals from viewing or accessing protected health information on the screen.
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162) 162. Which of the following is an example of poor multitasking?
Explanation: True multitasking is a myth; the brain is actually rapidly switching between tasks (context switching). Attempting to handle too many unrelated tasks at once leads to reduced focus, decreased efficiency, and an increased likelihood of making errors.
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163) 163. Which drug is most commonly used to relieve chest pain in angina?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that is the standard treatment for acute episodes of angina pectoris (chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart). It works by relaxing and widening coronary arteries, which increases blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart muscle.
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164) 164. Which enzyme in saliva begins the breakdown of carbohydrates?
Explanation: Salivary amylase (also called ptyalin) is the enzyme present in saliva that initiates the chemical digestion of starches (a type of carbohydrate) into smaller sugar molecules.
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165) 165. What is the first step in responding to a chemical spill?
Explanation: The first step in responding to a chemical spill depends on the nature of the spill and one’s training. If trained and equipped to do so safely, the first step is to contain the spill to prevent it from spreading. If not trained, the first step is to evacuate the area and report the spill.
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166) 166. Which organization provides technical assistance and research support for CLIA?
Explanation: Three federal agencies are responsible for CLIA: The FDA categorizes tests, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is responsible for program administration and oversight, including registration, certification, and surveys, and the CDC provides scientific and technical support.
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167) 167. Which preservative is used for 24-hour urine collection?
Explanation: Depending on the analyte being tested, a preservative may be required for a 24-hour urine collection to prevent bacterial growth and decomposition of the substance. Common preservatives include boric acid, hydrochloric acid, or simply keeping the specimen refrigerated.
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168) 168. Which procedure is considered invasive and requires sterility?
Explanation: An invasive procedure is one that breaks the skin or enters a body cavity. IV catheter insertion is invasive because it involves piercing the skin and a vein. Therefore, it requires sterile technique to prevent introducing pathogens directly into the bloodstream.
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169) 169. Which route of drug administration is applied directly to the skin surface?
Explanation: Topical administration involves applying medication directly to a localized area of the skin or mucous membranes for direct effect at that site.
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170) 170. What color container is typically used for sharps disposal?
Explanation: Sharps containers are mandated to be closable, puncture-resistant, and leak-proof. They are typically color-coded red or yellow and labeled with the universal biohazard symbol to indicate they contain hazardous infectious waste.
171 / 200
171) 171. What should be done immediately after calling for help and activating EMS in cardiac arrest?
Explanation: In the chain of survival for cardiac arrest, immediately after activating the emergency response system, the next crucial step is to begin high-quality chest compressions to circulate blood to the brain and vital organs until an AED arrives.
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172) 172. Which route bypasses the GI tract?
Explanation: The sublingual route, where a medication is placed under the tongue to dissolve, bypasses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The drug is absorbed directly into the rich network of blood vessels under the tongue, allowing for rapid entry into the systemic circulation.
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173) 173. Which financial statement shows assets, liabilities, and equity at a specific point in time?
Explanation: A balance sheet provides a snapshot of a company’s financial health at a single point in time. It follows the fundamental accounting equation: Assets = Liabilities + Equity.
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174) 174. Which scheduling system allows patients to be seen in the order they arrive?
Explanation: Open hours scheduling (also known as walk-in or tidal wave scheduling) allows patients to arrive at any time during a specified block of time. They are then seen on a first-come, first-served basis.
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175) 175. Which PPE is most important for preventing bloodborne pathogen exposure?
Explanation: While all PPE is important, gloves are the most critical barrier for preventing direct contact of the hands with blood or other potentially infectious materials, a primary route of bloodborne pathogen transmission.
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176) 176. Which insurance form is used to submit outpatient claims to Medicare?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: The CMS-1500 is the standard claim form used by physicians and other non-institutional providers to bill Medicare and other insurance carriers for outpatient services.
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177) 177. What color tube is used for coagulation studies?
Explanation: This question is a duplicate of Q118. The light blue top tube contains sodium citrate and is the standard for coagulation tests like PT/INR.
178 / 200
178) 178. Which vein is most commonly used for routine venipuncture?
Explanation: The median cubital vein, located in the antecubital fossa (the bend of the elbow), is the preferred site for venipuncture because it is typically large, well-anchored, and close to the surface, making it easy to access and less likely to bruise.
179 / 200
179) 179. Which type of shock occurs due to spinal cord injury?
Explanation: Neurogenic shock is a type of distributive shock resulting from damage to the nervous system, typically from a spinal cord injury. This damage disrupts sympathetic nerve impulses, leading to widespread vasodilation and a sudden drop in blood pressure.
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180) 180. Which symbol indicates infectious waste?
Explanation: The universal biohazard symbol is used to label substances that contain biological agents that pose a threat to the health of living organisms, primarily that of humans. This includes infectious waste.
181 / 200
181) 181. Which gland is known as the “master gland” because it controls other endocrine glands?
Explanation: The pituitary gland is often called the “master gland” because it produces hormones that regulate the function of many other endocrine glands, including the thyroid, adrenal glands, and gonads.
182 / 200
182) 182. Which POCT can be used for COVID-19 detection?
Explanation: Rapid antigen swab tests are a type of point-of-care test (POCT) used for the qualitative detection of SARS-CoV-2 antigens in respiratory specimens. They provide results quickly, typically within 15-30 minutes, making them useful for rapid screening.
183 / 200
183) 183. Which vitamin is primarily obtained from sunlight exposure?
Explanation: The body synthesizes Vitamin D when the skin is exposed to ultraviolet B (UVB) rays from sunlight. This is why it is often referred to as the “sunshine vitamin.”
184 / 200
184) 184. When should CPR be stopped?
Explanation: CPR should be continued without interruption until one of several things happens: the patient shows obvious signs of life (e.g., breathing, moving), an AED is ready to analyze, trained emergency medical services personnel take over, or the scene becomes unsafe.
185 / 200
185) 185. Which mineral is most important for strong bones and teeth?
Explanation: Calcium is the essential mineral for building and maintaining the structure of bones and teeth. It works in conjunction with Vitamin D to ensure proper bone health and density.
186 / 200
186) 186. Which vaccine protects against influenza?
Explanation: The influenza vaccine, commonly known as the flu shot, is recommended annually to protect against the influenza viruses that research indicates will be most common during the upcoming season.
187 / 200
187) 187. What is the correct compression-to-breath ratio for adult CPR?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: For adult CPR performed by one or two rescuers, the standard ratio is 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths. This prioritizes circulation while still providing ventilation.
188 / 200
188) 188. Which OSHA standard requires emergency exit routes to be posted and accessible?
Explanation: OSHA’s standard on Exit Routes, Emergency Action Plans, and Fire Prevention Plans requires employers to have clearly marked and accessible exit routes to ensure workers can safely evacuate during an emergency.
189 / 200
189) 189. What is the normal respiratory rate for adults?
Explanation: The normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. A rate below 12 or above 25 while resting is considered abnormal.
190 / 200
190) 190. Which position is used for abdominal exams?
Explanation: The supine position, with the patient lying flat on their back, is the standard position for an abdominal examination. It allows the abdominal muscles to relax, making it easier to palpate and auscultate the abdomen.
191 / 200
191) 191. Which organ is the primary site of drug excretion?
Explanation: The kidneys are the primary organs responsible for excreting drugs and their metabolites from the body. They filter waste products from the blood and eliminate them in the urine.
192 / 200
192) 192. Which standard precaution should be used with all patients?
(Pre Test ) Explanation: Standard precautions are based on the principle that all blood, body fluids, secretions, excretions (except sweat), non-intact skin, and mucous membranes may contain transmissible infectious agents. Therefore, all elements listed (hand hygiene, PPE use, safe injection practices) should be used with all patients to prevent infection transmission.
193 / 200
193) 193. Which pulse site is checked in an unconscious adult during CPR?
Explanation: In an unconscious adult, the carotid artery on the side of the neck is the most reliable site to check for a pulse. It is a central artery that is more likely to remain palpable when blood pressure is low, unlike peripheral pulses like the radial artery.
194 / 200
194) 194. Which type of scheduling is most flexible for walk-in patients?
Explanation: Open hours scheduling is the most flexible system for walk-in patients. It designates a block of time during which patients can arrive without a specific appointment and are seen in the order of their arrival.
195 / 200
195) 195. Which drug classification is used to treat bacterial infections?
Explanation: Antibiotics are a class of antimicrobial drugs used in the treatment and prevention of bacterial infections. They work by either killing the bacteria (bactericidal) or inhibiting their growth (bacteriostatic).
196 / 200
196) 196. What is the correct compression-to-breath ratio for adults?
Explanation: This question is a duplicate of Q3. For adult CPR, the standard compression-to-ventilation ratio for both one and two rescuers is 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths (30:2).
197 / 200
197) 197. Which of the following may negatively affect the patient-provider relationship the most?
Explanation: While any discussion of unpaid bills can be difficult, taking legal action is the most adversarial step. It can permanently damage trust and effectively end the patient-provider relationship, making it a last resort after all other collection efforts have failed.
198 / 200
198) 198. How should urgent calls from patients be handled?
Explanation: Urgent calls from patients may indicate a serious medical issue that requires prompt attention. They should be immediately triaged and reported to a licensed clinical staff member, such as a nurse or physician, according to office protocol.
199 / 200
199) 199. Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?
Explanation: The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage located at the root of the tongue that depresses during swallowing to cover the opening of the windpipe (trachea). This action prevents food and drink from entering the airway and causing aspiration.
200 / 200
200) 200. According to HIPAA, who is allowed to access a patient’s health record?
Explanation: This is a duplicate of Q49. The HIPAA Privacy Rule’s ‘minimum necessary’ standard dictates that access to patient records should be restricted to only those authorized healthcare providers and staff who are directly involved in the patient’s treatment, payment, or healthcare operations.
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