MCQs 06
💊MEDICATIONS 1-32 ⚖️FEDERAL REQUIREMENTS 33-42 🩺PATIENT SAFETY & QUALITY ASSURANCE 43-63 🧾 ORDER ENTRY & PROCESSING 63-80
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Tags: Medications
A. Which medication is a calcium channel blocker used for angina?
Oops! Revisit the relevant guidelines.
Correct! Well done.
Explanation: Verapamil reduces cardiac workload by blocking calcium channels. [Image of calcium channel blocker mechanism of action]
Reference: Standard Pharmacy Practice Guidelines
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B. Which drug is classified as a thiazide diuretic?
Explanation: Thiazides act in the distal convoluted tubule.
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C. Which insulin has the fastest onset?
Explanation: Aspart is a rapid-acting insulin.
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D. Which medication suppresses gastric acid secretion?
Explanation: PPIs block proton pumps in the stomach. [Image of gastric parietal cell proton pump mechanism]
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E. Which drug is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
Explanation: Methimazole inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis.
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F. Which medication is a selective beta-1 blocker?
Explanation: Metoprolol primarily affects beta-1 receptors.
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G. Which opioid is Schedule II?
Explanation: Extended-release hydrocodone is Schedule II.
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H. Which medication should be taken on an empty stomach?
Explanation: Food interferes with alendronate absorption.
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I. Which antidepressant is an SSRI?
Explanation: SSRIs selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake.
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J. Which drug is used for motion sickness?
Explanation: Meclizine prevents nausea and vertigo.
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K. Which medication is an ARB?
Explanation: ARBs end in “-sartan”.
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L. Which drug primarily lowers triglycerides?
Explanation: Fibrates are effective for high triglycerides.
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M. Which antibiotic belongs to the fluoroquinolone class?
Explanation: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone.
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N. Which medication is a benzodiazepine?
Explanation: Benzodiazepines end in -pam or -lam.
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O. Which drug treats ADHD?
Explanation: Atomoxetine is a non-stimulant ADHD medication.
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P. Which anticoagulant is a direct thrombin inhibitor?
Explanation: Dabigatran directly inhibits thrombin. [Image of coagulation cascade showing thrombin inhibition]
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Q. Which medication is considered high-alert?
Explanation: Potassium chloride errors can be fatal.
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R. Which drug treats fibromyalgia?
Explanation: Pregabalin reduces nerve pain.
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S. Which diuretic conserves potassium?
Explanation: Potassium-sparing diuretics prevent potassium loss.
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T. Which medication is a systemic corticosteroid?
Explanation: Prednisolone reduces inflammation systemically.
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U. Which drug is used to prevent migraines?
Explanation: Topiramate is used prophylactically.
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V. Which medication treats erectile dysfunction?
Explanation: PDE-5 inhibitors improve blood flow.
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W. Which asthma medication is long-acting?
Explanation: Salmeterol is a LABA.
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X. Which drug is a muscle relaxant?
Explanation: Tizanidine reduces muscle tone.
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Y. Which antidepressant is a TCA?
Explanation: TCAs are older antidepressants.
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Z. Which medication treats osteoporosis?
Explanation: Denosumab reduces bone resorption. [Image of bone remodeling cycle and osteoclasts]
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AA. Which drug interacts with grapefruit juice?
Explanation: Grapefruit increases statin levels.
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AB. Which medication treats seizures?
Explanation: Levetiracetam is an anticonvulsant.
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AC. Which medication is an H2 receptor blocker?
Explanation: H2 blockers reduce acid secretion.
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AD. Which medication treats BPH?
Explanation: Alpha-1 blockers improve urine flow.
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AE. Which drug is Schedule IV?
Explanation: Benzodiazepines are Schedule IV.
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AF. Which medication improves insulin sensitivity?
Explanation: TZDs improve insulin sensitivity.
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Tags: Federal Requirements
AG. Which DEA form orders Schedule II drugs?
Explanation: DEA 222 is required for Schedule II ordering. [Image of DEA Form 222]
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AH. Minimum controlled substance inventory frequency?
Explanation: Federal law requires a biennial inventory.
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AI. Which schedule allows refills?
Explanation: Schedule III–V allow refills.
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AJ. DEA Form 106 reports:
Explanation: Theft or loss must be reported.
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AK. Which schedule has no accepted medical use?
Explanation: Schedule I drugs lack medical use.
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AL. Federal transfer warning applies to:
Explanation: Required for C-III–V.
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AM. Pseudoephedrine daily limit?
Explanation: CMEA limits daily sales to 3.6 g.
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AN. Which agency enforces controlled substance laws?
Explanation: DEA enforces federal drug laws.
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AO. Controlled substance records retention?
Explanation: Minimum federal requirement is 2 years.
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AP. DEA number verifies:
Explanation: Confirms authority to prescribe controls.
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Tags: Patient Safety & Quality Assurance
AQ. Wrong drug dispensed to correct patient is:
Explanation: Incorrect medication selected.
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AR. Tall Man lettering reduces:
Explanation: Highlights similar drug names. [Image of Tall Man lettering examples in pharmacy]
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AS. Expired medications must be:
Explanation: Prevents dispensing errors.
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AT. PHI includes:
Explanation: Profiles contain identifiable data.
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AU. Final prescription check is done by:
Explanation: Pharmacist performs final verification.
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AV. QA programs primarily aim to:
Explanation: QA focuses on patient safety.
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AW. Near-miss error means:
Explanation: Intercepted before reaching patient.
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AX. Best way to avoid cross-contamination?
Explanation: Prevents residue transfer.
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AY. HIPAA violation occurs when:
Explanation: Unauthorized disclosure is prohibited.
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AZ. Organization publishing unsafe abbreviation lists?
Explanation: ISMP promotes medication safety.
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BA. Unclear prescription should be:
Explanation: Pharmacist must clarify.
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BB. High-alert drugs require:
Explanation: Errors may cause serious harm.
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BC. USP addresses:
Explanation: Protects staff from exposure. [Image of pharmacy hazardous drug handling PPE]
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BD. Wrong strength dispensed is:
Explanation: Dosage strength incorrect.
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BE. Medication looks different—verify:
Explanation: NDC confirms product identity.
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BF. Two patient identifiers prevent:
Explanation: Confirms correct patient.
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BG. Patient counseling ensures:
Explanation: Improves adherence and safety.
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BH. Error discovered post-dispensing should be:
Explanation: Ensures patient safety.
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BI. Best privacy protection method:
Explanation: Reduces PHI exposure.
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BJ. Error reporting systems exist to:
Explanation: Focus on system improvement.
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BK. Which requires immediate pharmacist attention?
Explanation: Allergies need clinical judgment.
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Tags: Order Entry & Processing
BL. Rx: 1 tablet TID for 7 days. Quantity?
Explanation: 3 tablets/day × 7 days = 21.
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BM. DAW code 1 means:
Explanation: No substitution allowed.
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BN. Prior authorization required means:
Explanation: Approval needed before coverage.
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BO. 0.45 g equals:
Explanation: 1 g = 1,000 mg.
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BP. Insurance billed first:
Explanation: Primary pays first.
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BQ. “q6h” means:
Explanation: q6h = every 6 hours.
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BR. NDC mismatch—technician should:
Explanation: Requires pharmacist review.
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BS. Required on prescription label:
Explanation: Federal labeling requirement.
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BT. “Refill too soon” indicates:
Explanation: Refill requested early.
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BU. Step after data entry:
Explanation: Pharmacist verifies next.
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BV. Liquid: 15 mL BID × 4 days =
Explanation: 30 mL/day × 4 = 120 mL.
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BW. Quantity conflicts with directions—action?
Explanation: Pharmacist must resolve.
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BX. Transferable prescriptions:
Explanation: C-III–V may be transferred.
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BY. “qhs” means:
Explanation: qhs = nightly.
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BZ. Prescriber must be contacted for:
Explanation: Dose clarification required.
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CA. Outside technician scope:
Explanation: Clinical judgment is pharmacist-only.
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CB. Schedule II partial fills follow:
Explanation: Strictly regulated by law.
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