MCQs 05
💊MEDICATIONS 1-32 ⚖️FEDERAL REQUIREMENTS 33-42 🩺PATIENT SAFETY & QUALITY ASSURANCE 43-63 🧾 ORDER ENTRY & PROCESSING 63-80
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Tags: Medications
A. Which drug is Schedule IV?
Oops! Revisit the relevant guidelines.
Correct! Well done.
Explanation: Benzodiazepines are Schedule IV.
Reference: Standard Pharmacy Practice Guidelines
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B. Which medication is first-line for type 2 diabetes?
Explanation: Metformin improves insulin sensitivity.
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Tags: Federal Requirements
C. Which DEA form is used to order Schedule II drugs?
Explanation: Form 222 is required for Schedule II ordering. [Image of DEA Form 222]
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D. How often must a controlled substance inventory be taken?
Explanation: Federal law requires a biennial inventory.
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E. Which schedule allows refills?
Explanation: Schedule III–V allow refills with limits.
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F. DEA Form 106 is used to report:
Explanation: Form 106 reports theft or loss.
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G. Which schedule has no accepted medical use?
Explanation: Schedule I drugs have no medical use.
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H. The federal transfer warning applies to:
Explanation: Required for Schedule III–V.
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I. What is the daily pseudoephedrine limit?
Explanation: CMEA limits daily sales to 3.6 g.
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J. Which agency enforces controlled substance laws?
Explanation: DEA enforces federal drug laws.
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K. How long must controlled substance records be kept?
Explanation: Minimum retention is 2 years.
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L. A DEA number verifies:
Explanation: DEA numbers confirm prescriber authorization.
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Tags: Patient Safety & Quality Assurance
M. Dispensing the correct drug to the wrong patient is a:
Explanation: The medication reached the incorrect patient.
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N. Tall Man lettering prevents:
Explanation: It reduces look-alike/sound-alike errors. [Image of Tall Man lettering examples in pharmacy]
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O. Expired medications must be:
Explanation: Expired meds must be removed from stock.
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P. Which is protected health information (PHI)?
Explanation: Profiles contain identifiable patient data.
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Q. Who performs the final prescription check?
Explanation: Final verification is the pharmacist’s duty.
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R. Quality assurance programs aim to:
Explanation: QA focuses on patient safety.
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S. A near-miss error is one that:
Explanation: Near-misses are intercepted errors.
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T. To prevent cross-contamination, trays should be:
Explanation: Cleaning between drugs prevents residue transfer.
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U. HIPAA is violated when:
Explanation: Unauthorized disclosure violates HIPAA.
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V. Which organization identifies unsafe abbreviations?
Explanation: ISMP publishes error-prevention guidelines.
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W. An unclear prescription should be:
Explanation: Only pharmacists may clarify prescriptions.
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X. High-alert medications require:
Explanation: Errors can cause serious harm.
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Y. USP applies to:
Explanation: USP addresses hazardous drug handling. [Image of pharmacy hazardous drug handling PPE]
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Z. Dispensing the wrong strength is a:
Explanation: The dosage strength is incorrect.
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AA. If a medication looks different, verify the:
Explanation: NDC confirms product identity.
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AB. Two patient identifiers help prevent:
Explanation: Identity verification prevents patient mix-ups.
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AC. Patient counseling ensures:
Explanation: Counseling improves safe use.
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AD. An error found after dispensing should be:
Explanation: Errors must be documented and addressed.
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AE. Best way to protect privacy:
Explanation: Private areas reduce disclosure.
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AF. Error reporting systems exist to:
Explanation: Reporting identifies system improvements.
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AG. Which situation requires pharmacist intervention?
Explanation: Allergies require clinical judgment.
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Tags: Order Entry & Processing
AH. Rx: Take 1 tablet BID for 10 days. Quantity?
Explanation: 2 tablets/day × 10 days = 20 tablets.
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AI. DAW code 1 means:
Explanation: DAW 1 = no substitution allowed.
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AJ. A “prior authorization required” rejection means:
Explanation: Prescribers initiate prior authorization.
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AK. 0.6 grams equals:
Explanation: 1 g = 1,000 mg.
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AL. Which insurance is billed first?
Explanation: Primary insurance is billed first.
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AM. “q8h” means:
Explanation: q8h = every 8 hours.
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AN. NDC mismatch requires the technician to:
Explanation: Mismatches require pharmacist review.
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AO. Which must appear on a prescription label?
Explanation: Federal law requires pharmacy address.
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AP. “Refill too soon” means:
Explanation: Refill requested before allowed date.
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AQ. Step after data entry:
Explanation: Verification occurs before filling.
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AR. Liquid Rx: 5 mL TID for 6 days equals:
Explanation: 15 mL/day × 6 days = 90 mL.
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AS. If quantity conflicts with directions, technician should:
Explanation: Conflicts require pharmacist clarification.
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AT. Which prescriptions may be transferred?
Explanation: Schedule III–V may be transferred.
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AU. “qhs” means:
Explanation: qhs = at bedtime.
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AV. When must the prescriber be contacted?
Explanation: Dosage clarification requires prescriber input.
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AW. Which task is outside technician scope?
Explanation: Clinical judgment is pharmacist-only.
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AX. Partial fills of Schedule II drugs follow:
Explanation: Schedule II partial fills are regulated by law.
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