MCQs 03
💊MEDICATIONS 1-32 ⚖️FEDERAL REQUIREMENTS 33-42 🩺PATIENT SAFETY & QUALITY ASSURANCE 43-63 🧾 ORDER ENTRY & PROCESSING 63-80
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Tags: Medications
A. Which medication is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension?
Oops! Revisit the relevant guidelines.
Correct! Well done.
Explanation: Amlodipine relaxes blood vessels by blocking calcium channels.
Reference: Standard Pharmacy Practice Guidelines
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B. Which drug is classified as a thiazide diuretic?
Explanation: Thiazides work in the distal convoluted tubule. [Image of nephron distal convoluted tubule]
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C. Which medication is a short-acting insulin?
Explanation: Lispro is rapid-acting and used for meals.
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D. Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor?
Explanation: PPIs suppress gastric acid secretion. [Image of gastric parietal cell proton pump]
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E. Which medication is used to treat hypothyroidism?
Explanation: Levothyroxine replaces thyroid hormone.
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F. Which medication is a beta-1 selective blocker?
Explanation: Atenolol primarily affects beta-1 receptors.
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G. Which drug is Schedule II?
Explanation: Schedule II drugs have high abuse potential.
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H. Which medication should not be crushed?
Explanation: Extended-release products must not be crushed.
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I. Which drug is an SSRI?
Explanation: SSRIs inhibit serotonin reuptake.
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J. Which medication is used for acute allergic reactions?
Explanation: Diphenhydramine works quickly for acute symptoms.
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K. Which medication is an ARB?
Explanation: ARBs end in “-sartan”.
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L. Which drug lowers LDL cholesterol?
Explanation: Statins reduce cholesterol synthesis. [Image of cholesterol synthesis pathway liver]
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M. Which antibiotic may cause photosensitivity?
Explanation: Tetracyclines increase sun sensitivity.
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N. Which medication is a benzodiazepine?
Explanation: Benzodiazepines end in -pam or -lam.
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O. Which drug is an SNRI?
Explanation: SNRIs affect serotonin and norepinephrine.
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P. Which anticoagulant requires INR monitoring?
Explanation: Warfarin activity is monitored with INR.
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Q. Which medication is considered high-alert?
Explanation: Insulin errors can cause severe harm.
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R. Which drug treats neuropathic pain?
Explanation: Gabapentin is effective for nerve pain.
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S. Which medication is potassium-sparing?
Explanation: Spironolactone conserves potassium.
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T. Which medication is a corticosteroid?
Explanation: Corticosteroids reduce inflammation.
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U. Which drug is used for smoking cessation?
Explanation: Bupropion reduces nicotine cravings.
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V. Which medication is a PDE-5 inhibitor?
Explanation: Sildenafil treats erectile dysfunction.
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W. Which drug is for asthma maintenance therapy?
Explanation: Montelukast is not a rescue inhaler.
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X. Which medication is a muscle relaxant?
Explanation: Baclofen reduces muscle spasticity.
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Y. Which drug is a tricyclic antidepressant?
Explanation: TCAs are older antidepressants.
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Z. Which medication treats osteoporosis?
Explanation: Alendronate is a bisphosphonate.
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AA. Which drug interacts with vitamin K intake?
Explanation: Vitamin K affects warfarin’s action.
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AB. Which medication is an anticonvulsant?
Explanation: Lamotrigine treats seizures.
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AC. Which medication is an H2 blocker?
Explanation: H2 blockers reduce stomach acid.
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AD. Which drug is used for BPH?
Explanation: Tamsulosin improves urinary flow.
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AE. Which drug is Schedule IV?
Explanation: Alprazolam is Schedule IV.
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AF. Which medication is first-line for type 2 diabetes?
Explanation: Metformin is first-line therapy.
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Tags: Federal Requirements
AG. Which DEA form is used to order Schedule II controlled substances?
Explanation: DEA Form 222 is required to order Schedule II drugs. [Image of DEA Form 222]
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AH. How often must a controlled substance inventory be taken at minimum?
Explanation: Federal law requires a biennial inventory.
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AI. Which schedule allows refills under federal law?
Explanation: Schedule III–V prescriptions may be refilled with limits.
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AJ. DEA Form 106 is used to report:
Explanation: Form 106 documents theft or loss of controlled substances. [Image of DEA Form 106]
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AK. Which controlled substance schedule has no accepted medical use?
Explanation: Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use.
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AL. The federal transfer warning must appear on labels for:
Explanation: Required for Schedule III–V medications.
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AM. What is the daily sales limit for pseudoephedrine?
Explanation: CMEA limits sales to 3.6 g/day.
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AN. Which agency enforces federal controlled substance laws?
Explanation: The DEA enforces controlled substance regulations.
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AO. How long must federal controlled substance records be retained?
Explanation: Minimum federal retention is 2 years.
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AP. A prescriber’s DEA number is used to verify:
Explanation: DEA numbers confirm authority to prescribe controls.
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Tags: Patient Safety & Quality Assurance
AQ. Dispensing the correct drug to the wrong patient is a:
Explanation: The medication reached the incorrect patient.
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AR. Tall Man lettering helps prevent:
Explanation: It highlights differences in similar drug names. [Image of Tall Man lettering examples in pharmacy]
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AS. What should be done with expired medications?
Explanation: Expired drugs must be removed from active stock.
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AT. Which item is considered protected health information (PHI)?
Explanation: Medication profiles contain identifiable patient data.
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AU. Who performs the final prescription verification?
Explanation: Final verification is the pharmacist’s responsibility.
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AV. The primary goal of quality assurance programs is to:
Explanation: QA focuses on patient safety and error prevention.
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AW. A near-miss error is one that:
Explanation: Near-misses are intercepted before patient exposure.
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AX. To prevent cross-contamination, counting trays should be:
Explanation: Cleaning between drugs prevents residue transfer.
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AY. HIPAA violations occur when:
Explanation: Unauthorized disclosure violates HIPAA.
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AZ. Which organization publishes lists of error-prone abbreviations?
Explanation: ISMP identifies unsafe practices and abbreviations.
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BA. An unclear prescription should be:
Explanation: Only pharmacists may clarify prescriptions.
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BB. High-alert medications require:
Explanation: Errors with these drugs can cause serious harm.
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BC. USP standards apply to:
Explanation: USP reduces exposure to hazardous drugs. [Image of pharmacy hazardous drug handling PPE]
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BD. Dispensing the wrong strength is a:
Explanation: The dosage strength is incorrect.
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BE. If a medication appears different, the technician should verify the:
Explanation: NDC confirms correct product and manufacturer.
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BF. Using two patient identifiers helps prevent:
Explanation: Two identifiers confirm patient identity.
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BG. Proper patient counseling ensures:
Explanation: Counseling improves correct and safe use.
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BH. A technician discovers an error after dispensing. What should be done?
Explanation: Errors must be documented and addressed for safety.
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BI. Which practice best protects patient privacy?
Explanation: Private areas reduce unintended disclosure.
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BJ. The purpose of medication error reporting systems is to:
Explanation: Reporting identifies system improvements.
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BK. Which situation requires immediate pharmacist involvement?
Explanation: Allergies require clinical judgment.
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Tags: Order Entry & Processing
BL. Rx: Take 1 tablet BID for 14 days. Quantity?
Explanation: 2 tablets/day × 14 days = 28 tablets.
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BM. DAW code 1 indicates:
Explanation: DAW 1 = no generic substitution allowed.
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BN. A “prior authorization required” rejection means:
Explanation: Prior authorizations are initiated by prescribers.
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BO. 0.5 grams equals:
Explanation: 1 g = 1,000 mg.
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BP. Which insurance plan is billed first?
Explanation: Primary insurance is billed first.
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BQ. The abbreviation “q8h” means:
Explanation: q8h = every 8 hours.
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BR. If the NDC scanned does not match the label, the technician should:
Explanation: NDC mismatches require pharmacist review.
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BS. Which item must appear on a prescription label?
Explanation: Federal law requires the pharmacy name and address.
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BT. A “refill too soon” rejection indicates:
Explanation: The refill is requested before allowed time.
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BU. Which step follows data entry in the workflow?
Explanation: Verification occurs before filling.
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BV. Liquid Rx: 10 mL BID for 5 days equals:
Explanation: 20 mL/day × 5 days = 100 mL.
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BW. If directions conflict with quantity, the technician should:
Explanation: Conflicts require pharmacist clarification.
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BX. Which prescriptions may be transferred between pharmacies?
Explanation: Schedule III–V prescriptions may be transferred.
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BY. The abbreviation “qhs” means:
Explanation: qhs = every night at bedtime.
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BZ. Which situation requires contacting the prescriber?
Explanation: Dosage clarification requires prescriber input.
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CA. Which task is outside a technician’s scope of practice?
Explanation: Clinical decisions are pharmacist-only tasks.
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CB. Partial fills of Schedule II medications must follow:
Explanation: Schedule II partial fills are governed by law.
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